{"text": "(a) General definition of covered agreement. A covered agreement is any contract, arrangement, or understanding that meets all of the following criteria - , (1) The agreement is in writing. , (2) The parties to the agreement include - , (i) One or more insured depository institutions or affiliates of an insured depository institution; and , (ii) One or more nongovernmental entities or persons (referred to hereafter as NGEPs). , (3) The agreement provides for the insured depository institution or any affiliate to - , (i) Provide to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) cash payments, grants, or other consideration (except loans) that have an aggregate value of more than $10,000 in any calendar year; or, (ii) Make to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) loans that have an aggregate principal amount of more than $50,000 in any calendar year. , (4) The agreement is made pursuant to, or in connection with, the fulfillment of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 et seq.) (CRA), as defined in § 207.4. , (5) The agreement is with a NGEP that has had a CRA communication as described in § 207.3 prior to entering into the agreement. , (b) Examples concerning written arrangements or understandings - (1) Example 1. A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more community development investments in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not reach an agreement concerning the community development investments the institution should make in the community, and the parties do not reach any mutual arrangement or understanding. Two weeks later, the institution unilaterally issues a press release announcing that it has established a general goal of making $100 million of community development grants in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods served by the insured depository institution over the next 5 years. The NGEP is not identified in the press release. The press release is not a written arrangement or understanding. , (2) Example 2. A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to offer new loan programs in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and the insured depository institution reach a mutual arrangement or understanding that the institution will provide additional loans in the NGEP's community. The institution tells the NGEP that it will issue a press release announcing the program. Later, the insured depository institution issues a press release announcing the loan program. The press release incorporates the key terms of the understanding reached between the NGEP and the insured depository institution. The written press release reflects the mutual arrangement or understanding of the NGEP and the insured depository institution and is, therefore, a written arrangement or understanding. , (3) Example 3. An NGEP sends a letter to an insured depository institution requesting that the institution provide a $15,000 grant to the NGEP. The insured depository institution responds in writing and agrees to provide the grant in connection with its annual grant program. The exchange of letters constitutes a written arrangement or understanding. , (c) Loan agreements that are not covered agreements. A covered agreement does not include - , (1) Any individual loan that is secured by real estate; or , (2) Any specific contract or commitment for a loan or extension of credit to an individual, business, farm, or other entity, or group of such individuals or entities, if - , (i) The funds are loaned at rates that are not substantially below market rates; and , (ii) The loan application or other loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to use the borrowed funds to make a loan or extension of credit to one or more third parties. , (d) Examples concerning loan agreements - (1) Example 1. An insured depository institution provides an organization with a $1 million loan that is documented in writing and is secured by real estate owned or to-be-acquired by the organization. The agreement is an individual mortgage loan and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regardless of the interest rate on the loan or whether the organization intends or is authorized to re-loan the funds to a third party. , (2) Example 2. An insured depository institution commits to provide a $500,000 line of credit to a small business that is documented by a written agreement. The loan is made at rates that are within the range of rates offered by the institution to similarly situated small businesses in the market and the loan documentation does not indicate that the small business intends or is authorized to re-lend the borrowed funds. The agreement is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. , (3) Example 3. An insured depository institution offers small business loans that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration (SBA). A small business obtains a $75,000 loan, documented in writing, from the institution under the institution's SBA loan program. The loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to re-lend the funds. Although the rate charged on the loan is well below that charged by the institution on commercial loans, the rate is within the range of rates that the institution would charge a similarly situated small business for a similar loan under the SBA loan program. Accordingly, the loan is not made at substantially below market rates and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. , (4) Example 4. A bank holding company enters into a written agreement with a community development organization that provides that insured depository institutions owned by the bank holding company will make $250 million in small business loans in the community over the next 5 years. The written agreement is not a specific contract or commitment for a loan or an extension of credit and, thus, is not exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Each small business loan made by the insured depository institution pursuant to this general commitment would, however, be exempt from coverage if the loan is made at rates that are not substantially below market rates and the loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intended or was authorized to re-lend the funds. , (e) Agreements that include exempt loan agreements. If an agreement includes a loan, extension of credit or loan commitment that, if documented separately, would be exempt under paragraph (c) of this section, the exempt loan, extension of credit or loan commitment may be excluded for purposes of determining whether the agreement is a covered agreement. , (f) Determining annual value of agreements that lack schedule of disbursements. For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a multi-year agreement that does not include a schedule for the disbursement of payments, grants, loans or other consideration by the insured depository institution or affiliate, is considered to have a value in the first year of the agreement equal to all payments, grants, loans and other consideration to be provided at any time under the agreement. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Except for records that are exempt from public disclosure under FOIA as amended (5 U.S.C. 552) or are promptly published and copies are available for purchase, NCUA routinely makes the following five types of records available for you to inspect and copy and in an electronic format:, (a) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders made in the adjudication of cases;, (b) Statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the agency but not published in the Federal Register;, (c) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;, (d) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, which have been released after March 31, 1997, in response to a FOIA request and which, because of the nature of their subject matter, NCUA determines have been or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests; or records that have been requested three (3) or more times; and, (e) Indices of the documents referred to in this paragraph.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General. In order to enable each Bank to evaluate the financial condition of any one or more of the other Banks and the Bank System, FHFA shall distribute to each Bank and to the Office of Finance, or shall require each Bank to distribute directly to each other Bank and the Office of Finance, such categories of financial and supervisory information regarding each Bank and the Bank system as it determines to be appropriate, subject to the requirements of this part., (b) Notice. FHFA shall prepare and issue to each Bank and the Office of Finance a notice setting forth the categories of information to be distributed, which it shall review from time to time and revise as necessary to ensure that the information distributed remains useful to the Banks in evaluating the financial strength of the other Banks and the Bank System. Prior to issuing a new or revised notice, FHFA shall notify each Bank and the Office of Finance of its proposed contents and allow them a reasonable period within which to comment., (c) Director's orders. The Director or his designee may issue such orders as are necessary to effect the distribution of the information set forth in the notice issued under paragraph (b) of this section and to carry out the provisions of this part.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any NCUA representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Any agreement entered into with a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in a unit must be approved by the President of the Bank or a designated officer representative. All agreements with labor organizations shall also be subject to the requirement that the administration of all matters covered by the agreement shall be governed by the provisions of applicable laws and Federal Reserve System rules and regulations, and the agreement shall at all times be applied subject to such laws and regulations.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Termination. A management official shall terminate his or her service or apply for an exemption if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited., (b) Transition period. A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the depository organization involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. The Board may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The Director of the Board's Division of Consumer and Community Affairs (or the Director's delegee) is authorized:, (a) Issuing examination manuals, forms, and other materials. To issue examination or inspection manuals; report, agreement, and examination forms; examination procedures, guidelines, instructions, and other similar materials pursuant to: section 11(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(a)); sections 108(b), 621(c), 704(b), 814(c), and 917(b) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1607(b), 1681s(b), 1691c(b), 1692l(c) and 1693o(b)); section 305(c) of the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2804(c)); section 18(f)(3) of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 57a(f)(3)); section 808(c) of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 3608(c)); section 270(b) of the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4309); and section 5 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)). The foregoing manuals, forms, and other materials are for use within the Federal Reserve System in the administration of enforcement responsibilities in connection with:, (1) Sections 1-200 and 501-921 of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1601-1693r), in regard to the Truth in Lending Act, the Consumer Leasing Act, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, the Fair Credit Reporting Act and the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act;, (2) Sections 301-312 of the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2801-2811); , (3) Section 18(f)(1)-(3) of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 57a(f)(1)-(3));, (4) Section 805 of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 3605) and rules and regulations issued thereunder; , (5) Section 1364 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4101(a)), and sections 105(b) and 202(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b), 4106(b)); , (6) Section 19(j) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b); and , (7) Sections 801-806 of the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901-2905). , (8) Sections 261-274 of the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301-4313)., (b) Consumer Advisory Council. Pursuant to section 703(b) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1691b(b)), to call meetings of and consult with the Consumer Advisory Council established under that section, approve the agenda for such meetings, and accept any resignations from Consumer Advisory Council members. , (c) Determining inconsistencies between state and federal laws. To determine whether a state law is inconsistent with the following federal acts and regulations:, (1) Sections 111, 171(a) and 186(a) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1610(a), 1666j(a), 1667e(a)) and § 226.28 of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) and § 213.7 of Regulation M (12 CFR part 213);, (2) Section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693q), § 205.12 of Regulation E (12 CFR part 205); , (3) Section 705(f) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691d(f) and § 202.11 of Regulation B (12 CFR part 202);, (4) Section 306(a) of the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2805(a)) and § 203.3 of Regulation C (12 CFR part 203); and, (5) Section 273 of the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4312) and § 230.1 of Regulation DD (12 CFR part 230)., (d) Interpreting the Fair Credit Reporting Act. To issue interpretations pursuant to section 621(e) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s(e));, (e) Annual adjustments. To adjust as required by law:, (1) The amount specified in section 103(aa)(1)(B)(ii) of the Truth in Lending Act and § 226.32(a)(1)(ii) of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), relating to mortgages bearing fees above a certain amount in accord with section 103(aa)(3) of that act (15 U.S.C. 1602(aa)); and, (2) The amount specified in section 309(b)(1) of the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2808(b)(1)) and § 203.3(a)(1)(ii) of Regulation C (12 CFR part 203) relating to the asset threshold above which a depository institution must collect and report data., (f) Community Reinvestment Act determinations. To make determinations, pursuant to section 804 of the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2903), approving or disapproving:, (1) Strategic plans and any amendments thereto pursuant to § 228.27(g) and (h) of Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228); and, (2) Requests for designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or the revocation of such designation, pursuant to § 228.25(b) of Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228)., (g) Public hearings. To conduct hearings or other proceedings required by law, concerning consumer law or other matters within the responsibilities of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, in consultation with other interested divisions of the Board where appropriate.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Request for oral hearing. The petitioner may request to appear before the Board to make an oral presentation in support of the appeal. The request must be submitted with the initial appeal documents and should be in the form of a separate written document titled “Request for Oral Hearing.” The request must show good cause for an oral presentation and state reasons why the appeal cannot be presented adequately in writing., (b) Action on the request. The Board shall determine whether to grant the request for oral hearing and shall direct the Special Counsel to serve notice of the Board's determination in writing to the petitioner. A request for oral hearing shall be granted with the approval of any Board member. The determination by a Board member approving an oral hearing must be taken within 20 days of the Board Secretary's receipt of the appeal., (c) Effect of denial. In the event no Board member approves of holding an oral hearing, the request for an oral hearing is deemed to be denied, and the appeal shall be reviewed and determined by the Board on the basis of the written record., (d) Procedures for oral hearing. The following procedures shall govern the conduct of any oral hearing:, (1) Scheduling of oral hearing; location. The Special Counsel shall notify the petitioner and the program office of the date and time for the oral hearing, making sure to provide reasonable lead time and schedule accommodations. The oral hearing will be held at NCUA headquarters in Alexandria, Virginia; provided, however, that on his or her own initiative or at the request of the petitioner, the Chairman may in his or her sole discretion allow for a hearing to be conducted via teleconference or video conference facilities., (2) Appearances; representation. The petitioner and the NCUA program office shall submit a notice of appearance identifying the individual(s) who will be representing them at the oral presentation. The petitioner shall designate not more than two officers, employees, or other representatives (including counsel), unless otherwise authorized by the Chairman. The NCUA program office shall designate not more than two individuals (one of whom may be a litigation and enforcement attorney from NCUA's Office of General Counsel), unless otherwise authorized by the Chairman., (3) Conduct of oral hearing. The oral hearing shall consist entirely of oral presentations. The introduction of written evidence or witness testimony at the hearing shall not be permitted. The petitioner shall present first, followed by the NCUA program office. Each side shall be allotted a specified and equal amount of time for its presentation, of which a portion may be reserved for purposes of rebuttal. This time limit shall be set by the Board and will be based on the complexity of the appeal. Members of the Board may ask questions of any individual appearing before the Board., (4) Transcript. The oral hearing shall be on the record and transcribed by a stenographer, who will prepare a transcript of the proceedings. The stenographer will make the transcript available to the petitioner upon payment of the cost thereof., (e) Confidentiality. An oral hearing as provided for herein constitutes a meeting of the Board within the meaning of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b). The NCUA Chairman shall preside over the conduct of the oral hearing. The meeting will be closed to the public to the extent that one or more of the exemptions from public meetings apply as certified by NCUA's Office of General Counsel. The Board shall maintain the confidentiality of any information or materials submitted or otherwise obtained in the course of the procedures outlined herein, subject to applicable law and regulations., (f) Conclusion of the oral hearing. The Board shall take the oral presentations under advisement. The Board shall render its decision on the appeal in accordance with § 746.206.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Notice of intent to issue directive. If a state member bank or bank holding company is operating with less than the minimum level of capital established in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines, or as otherwise established under the procedures described in § 263.85, or if the Board has determined that the current capital level of a savings and loan holding company is not adequate, the Board may issue and serve upon such state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company written notice of the Board's intent to issue a directive to require the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to achieve and maintain adequate capital within a specified time period., (b) Contents of notice. The notice of intent to issue a directive shall include:, (1) The required minimum level of capital to be achieved or maintained by the institution;, (2) Its current level of capital;, (3) The proposed increase in capital needed to meet the minimum requirements;, (4) The proposed date or schedule for meeting these minimum requirements;, (5) When deemed appropriate, specific details of a proposed plan for meeting the minimum capital requirements; and, (6) The date for a written response by the bank or bank holding company to the proposed directive, which shall be at least 14 days from the date of issuance of the notice unless the Board determines a shorter period is necessary because of the financial condition of the bank or bank holding company., (c) Response to notice. The bank or bank holding company may file a written response to the notice within the time period set by the Board. The response may include: , (1) An explanation why a directive should not be issued; , (2) Any proposed modification of the terms of the directive; , (3) Any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other evidence in support of the institution's position regarding the proposed directive; and, (4) The institution's plan for attaining the required level of capital., (d) Failure to file response. Failure by the bank or bank holding company to file a written response to the notice of intent to issue a directive within the specified time period shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of such directive., (e) Board consideration of response. After considering the response of the bank or bank holding company, the Board may:, (1) Issue the directive as originally proposed or in modified form;, (2) Determine not to issue a directive and so notify the bank or bank holding company; or, (3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response by the bank or bank holding company., (f) Contents of directive. Any directive issued by the Board may order the bank or bank holding company to:, (1) Achieve or maintain the minimum capital requirement established pursuant to the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines or the procedures in § 263.85 of this subpart by a certain date;, (2) Adhere to a previously submitted plan or submit for approval and adhere to a plan for achieving the minimum capital requirement by a certain date;, (3) Take other specific action as the Board directs to achieve the minimum capital levels, including requiring a reduction of assets or asset growth or restriction on the payment of dividends; or, (4) Take any combination of the above actions., (g) Request for reconsideration of directive. Any state member bank or bank holding company, upon a change in circumstances, may request the Board to reconsider the terms of a directive and may propose changes in the plan under which it is operating to meet the required minimum capital level. The directive and plan continue in effect while such request is pending before the Board.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Authorized UBE business activity. All UBE business activity must be:, (1) Necessary or expedient to the business of one or more System institutions owning the UBE; and, (2) In no instance greater than the functions and services that one or more System institutions owning the UBE are authorized to perform under the Act and as determined by the FCA., (b) Circumvention of cooperative principles. System institutions are prohibited from using UBEs to engage in direct lending activities or any other activity that would circumvent the application of cooperative principles, including borrower rights as described in section 4.14A of the Act, or stock ownership, voting rights or patronage as described in section 4.3A of the Act., (c) Transparency and the avoidance of conflicts of interest. Each System institution must ensure that:, (1) The UBE is held out to the public as a separate or subsidiary entity;, (2) The business transactions, accounts, and records of the UBE are not commingled with those of the System institution; and, (3) All transactions between the UBE and System institution directors, officers, employees, and agents are conducted at arm's length, in the interest of the System institution, and in compliance with standards of conduct rules in §§ 612.2130 through 612.2270., (d) Limit on one-member UBEs. A UBE owned solely by a single System institution (including between and among a parent agricultural credit association and its production credit association and Federal land credit association subsidiaries and between a parent agricultural credit bank and its subsidiary Farm Credit Bank) as a one-member UBE is limited to the following special purposes:, (1) Acquiring and managing the unusual or complex collateral associated with loans; and, (2) Providing limited services such as electronic transaction, fixed asset, trustee or other services that are integral to the daily internal operations of a System institution., (e) Limit on UBE partnerships. A System institution operating through a parent-subsidiary structure may not create a UBE partnership between or among the parent agricultural credit association and its production credit association and Federal land credit association subsidiaries or between a parent Agricultural Credit Bank and its Farm Credit Bank subsidiary., (f) Prohibition on UBE subsidiaries. Except as provided in this paragraph, a System institution may not create a subsidiary of a UBE that it has organized or invested in under this subpart or enable the UBE itself to create a subsidiary or any other type of affiliated entity. A System institution may establish a UBE as a subsidiary of a UBE formed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section to hold each investor's pro-rata interest in acquired property provided that the loan collateral at issue involves a multi-lender transaction that includes System and non-System lenders., (g) Limit on potential liability. (1) Each System institution's equity investment in a UBE must be established in a manner that will limit potential exposure of the System institution to no more than the amount of its investment in the UBE., (2) A System institution cannot become a general partner of any partnership other than an LLLP., (h) Limit on amount of equity investment in UBEs. The aggregate amount of equity investments that a single System institution is authorized to hold in UBEs must not exceed one percent of the institution's total outstanding loans, calculated at the time of each investment. On a case-by-case basis, FCA may approve an exception to this limitation that would exceed the one-percent aggregate limit. Conversely, FCA may impose a percentage limit lower than the one-percent aggregate limit based on safety or soundness and other relevant concerns. This one-percent aggregate limit does not apply to equity investments in one-member UBEs formed for acquired property as permitted in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Any equity investment made in a UBE by a service corporation must be attributed to its System institution owners based on the ownership percentage of each bank or association., (i) Prohibition on relationship with a third-party UBE. A System institution is prohibited from:, (1) Making any equity investment in a third-party UBE except as may be authorized on a case-by-case basis under § 615.5140(e) of this chapter for de minimis and passive investments. Such requests would be considered outside of this rule., (2) Serving as the general partner or manager of a third-party UBE; or, (3) Being designated as the primary beneficiary of a third-party UBE, either alone or with other System institutions., (j) Limitation on non-System equity investments. Non-System persons or entities may not invest in a UBE that is controlled by a System institution except that non-System persons or entities may own 20 percent or less of the equity of a System-controlled UBE organized to deliver services integral to the daily internal operations of a System institution., (k) UBEs formed for acquiring and managing collateral. The provisions of paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section do not apply to UBEs formed for the purpose of acquiring and managing unusual or complex collateral associated with multiple-lender loan transactions in which non-System persons or entities are participants.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "Adjusted trading or short sales. A Federal credit union may not engage in adjusted trading or short sales. ", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "Except as provided in this part or as otherwise authorized, no officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt information of the Committee to any person other than Board or Reserve Bank officers, employees, or agents properly entitled to such information in the performance of duties for, or pursuant to the direction of, the Committee.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) A program entry is characterized by a suspension or eventual dismissal or reversal of charges or criminal prosecution upon agreement, whether formal or informal, by the accused to treatment, rehabilitation, restitution, or other non-criminal or non-punitive alternatives. Whether the outcome of a case constitutes a program entry is determined by relevant Federal, State, or local law, and, if not so designated under applicable law, then the determination of whether a disposition is a program entry will be made by the FDIC on a case-by-case basis. Program entries prior to November 29, 1990, are not covered by section 19., (b) When a covered offense either is reduced by a program entry to an offense that would otherwise not be covered by section 19 or is dismissed upon successful completion of a program entry, the covered offense remains a covered offense for purposes of section 19. The covered offense will require an application unless it is de minimis as provided by § 303.227 of this subpart., (c) Expungements or sealings of program entries will be treated the same as those for convictions.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The Director may grant an employee permission to testify regarding agency matters, and to produce records and information, in response to a demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the Director may consider in making this determination are whether:, (a) This part's purposes are met;, (b) FHFA has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding;, (c) Approving the demand or request would assist or hinder FHFA in performing statutory duties or use FHFA resources;, (d) Production might assist or hinder employees in doing their work;, (e) The records, information, or testimony can be obtained from other sources. (Concerning testimony, “other sources” means a non-agency employee, or an agency employee other than the employee named)., (f) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the rules of discovery or procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose;, (g) Production of the records, information, or testimony might violate or be inconsistent with a statute, Executive Order, regulation, or other legal authority;, (h) Production of the records, information, or testimony might reveal confidential or privileged information, trade secrets, or confidential commercial or financial information;, (i) Production of the records, information, or testimony might impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceedings, or compromise constitutional rights;, (j) Production of the records, information, or testimony might result in FHFA appearing to favor one litigant over another;, (k) The demand or request pertains to documents that were produced by another agency;, (l) The demand or request complies with all other applicable rules;, (m) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered;, (n) The relevance of the records, information, or testimony to the purposes for which they are sought, and for which they may be used for substantive evidence;, (o) Production of the records, information, or employee testimony may implicate a substantial government interest; and, (p) Any other good cause.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Records. The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of nonpublic records, including a requirement that you obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement with the other parties in the legal proceeding that limits access to and any further disclosure of the nonpublic records. The terms of a confidentiality agreement or protective order must be acceptable to the General Counsel. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, the NCUA may condition the release of nonpublic records on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement. , (b) Testimony. The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the testimony of NCUA employees, including, for example, limiting the areas of testimony or requiring you and the other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which you requested the testimony. The General Counsel may also require you to provide a copy of the transcript of the testimony to the NCUA at your expense. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "If you are not satisfied with NCUA's response to your request, you can seek dispute resolution services from the FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services, and you can file an administrative appeal. Your appeal must be in writing and must be filed within 90 days from receipt of the initial determination (in cases of denials of the entire request or denials of a fee waiver or reduction), or from receipt of any records being made available pursuant to the initial determination (in cases of partial denials). In the response to your initial request, the Freedom of Information Act Officer or the Inspector General (or designee), will notify you that you may appeal any adverse determination to the Office of General Counsel. The General Counsel, or designee, as set forth in this paragraph, will:, (a) Make a determination with respect to any appeal within 20 working days after the receipt of such appeal. If, on appeal, the denial of the request for records is, in whole or in part, upheld, the Office of General Counsel will notify you of the provisions for judicial review of that determination under FOIA. Where you do not address your appeal to the General Counsel, the time limitations stated above will be computed from the date of receipt of the appeal by the General Counsel., (b) The General Counsel is the official responsible for determining all appeals from initial determinations. In case of this person's absence, the appropriate officer acting in the General Counsel's stead will make the appellate determination, unless such officer was responsible for the initial determination, in which case the Vice-Chairman of the NCUA Board will make the appellate determination., (c) All appeals should be addressed to the General Counsel in the Central Office and should be clearly identified as such on the envelope and in the letter of appeal by using the indicator “FOIA-APPEAL.” Failure to address an appeal properly may delay commencement of the time limitation stated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, to take account of the time reasonably required to forward the appeal to the Office of General Counsel.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Scope. Any critically undercapitalized insured depository institution shall submit an application to pay principal or interest on subordinated debt. , (b) Content of filing. Applications shall describe the proposed payment and provide an explanation of action taken under section 38(h)(3)(A)(ii) of the FDI Act (action other than receivership or conservatorship). The application also shall explain how such payments would further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o). Existing approvals pursuant to requests filed under section 18(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)) (capital stock reductions or retirements) shall not be deemed to be the permission needed pursuant to section 38.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to State member banks that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39) (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1).", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Capital distributions in general. An Enterprise shall make no capital distribution that would decrease the total capital of the Enterprise to an amount less than the risk-based capital level or the core capital of the Enterprise to an amount less than the minimum capital level without the prior written approval of OFHEO., (b) Capital distributions by an Enterprise that is not adequately capitalized - (1) Prohibited distributions. An Enterprise that is not classified as adequately capitalized shall make no capital distribution that would result in the Enterprise being classified into a lower capital classification than the one to which it is classified at the time of such distribution., (2) Restricted distributions. An Enterprise classified as significantly or critically undercapitalized shall make no capital distribution without the prior written approval of OFHEO. OFHEO may grant a request for such a capital distribution only if OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that the distribution:, (i) Will enhance the ability of the Enterprise to meet the risk-based capital level and the minimum capital level promptly;, (ii) Will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the Enterprise; or, (iii) Is otherwise in the public interest.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) In accordance with policies prescribed by the board of directors of the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank and each production credit association and agricultural credit association (hereinafter association(s)), such association(s) may invest in notes, conditional sales contracts, and other similar obligations given to cooperatives and private dealers by farmers and ranchers eligible to borrow from such associations., (b) Such notes and other obligations evidencing purchases of farm machinery, supplies, equipment, home appliances, and other items of a capital nature handled by cooperatives and private dealers will be eligible for purchase as investments. , (c) The total amount which an association may invest in such obligations at any one time shall not exceed 15 percent of the balance of its loans outstanding at the close of the association's preceding fiscal year. In addition, the total amount which an association may invest in such obligations that are originated by any one cooperative or private dealer, at any one time, shall not exceed 50 percent of association capital and surplus., (d) All notes in which an association invests shall be endorsed with full recourse against the cooperative or dealer. The association shall contact each notemaker who meets the association's credit standards to encourage him to become a borrower. ", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "Under the authority of section 206(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(b)), the NCUA Board may terminate the insured status of an insured credit union upon the grounds set forth therein and enumerated in § 747.202. The procedure for terminating the insured status of an insured credit union as therein prescribed will be followed and hearings required thereunder will be conducted in accordance with the rules and procedures set forth in this subpart and subpart A of this part. To the extent any rule or procedure of subpart A is inconsistent with a rule or procedure prescribed in this subpart C, subpart C shall control.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Any System institution, for the purpose of protecting the security position of the institution, may provide lists of borrowers to buyers, warehousemen, and others who deal in produce or livestock of the kind that secures such loans, except to the extent such actions are prohibited by State laws adopted in accordance with the Food Security Act of 1985, Pub. L. 99-198, 99 Stat. 1354. Lists of borrowers or stockholders shall not otherwise be released by any bank or association except in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section., (b)(1) Within 7 days after receipt of a written request by a stockholder, each Farm Credit bank or association must provide a current list of its stockholders' names, addresses, and classes of stock held to such requesting stockholder. As a condition to providing the list, the bank or association may only require that the stockholder agree and certify in writing that the stockholder will:, (i) Utilize the list exclusively for communicating with stockholders for permissible purposes; and, (ii) Not make the list available to any person, other than the stockholder's attorney or accountant, without first obtaining the written consent of the institution., (2) As an alternative to receiving a list of stockholders, a stockholder may request the institution mail or otherwise furnish to each stockholder a communication for a permissible purpose on behalf of the requesting stockholder. This alternative may be used at the discretion of the requesting stockholder, provided that the requester agrees to defray the reasonable costs of the communication. In the event the requester decides to exercise this option, the institution must provide the requester with a written estimate of the costs of handling and mailing the communication as soon as practicable after receipt of the stockholder's request to furnish a communication. However, a stockholder may not exercise this option when requesting the list to distribute campaign material for election to the institution board or board committees. Farm Credit banks and associations are prohibited from distributing or mailing campaign material under § 611.320(e) of this chapter., (3) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section “permissible purpose” is defined to mean matters relating to the business operations of the institutions. This includes matters relating to the effectiveness of management, the use of institution assets, the distribution by stockholder candidates of campaign material for election to the institution board or board committees, and the performance of directors and officers. This does not include communications involving commercial, social, political, or charitable causes, communications relating to the enforcement of a personal claim or the redress of a personal grievance, or proposals advocating that the bank or association violate any Federal, State, or local law or regulation., (c) In connection with preparing and submitting an electronic report of all System accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with the requirements of § 621.15 of this chapter, each bank and association may provide information from its lists of borrowers and stockholders to the Reporting Entity as defined in § 621.2 of this chapter.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The following restrictions on extensions of credit by a member bank to any of its executive officers apply in addition to any restrictions on extensions of credit by a member bank to insiders of itself or its affiliates set forth elsewhere in this part. The restrictions of this section apply only to executive officers of the member bank and not to executive officers of its affiliates. , (a) No member bank may extend credit to any of its executive officers, and no executive officer of a member bank shall borrow from or otherwise become indebted to the bank, except in the amounts, for the purposes, and upon the conditions specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. , (b) No member bank may extend credit in an aggregate amount greater than the amount permitted in paragraph (c)(4) of this section to a partnership in which one or more of the bank's executive officers are partners and, either individually or together, hold a majority interest. For the purposes of paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the total amount of credit extended by a member bank to such partnership is considered to be extended to each executive officer of the member bank who is a member of the partnership. , (c) A member bank is authorized to extend credit to any executive officer of the bank: , (1) In any amount to finance the education of the executive officer's children; , (2) In any amount to finance or refinance the purchase, construction, maintenance, or improvement of a residence of the executive officer, provided:, (i) The extension of credit is secured by a first lien on the residence and the residence is owned (or expected to be owned after the extension of credit) by the executive officer; and , (ii) In the case of a refinancing, that only the amount thereof used to repay the original extension of credit, together with the closing costs of the refinancing, and any additional amount thereof used for any of the purposes enumerated in this paragraph (c)(2), are included within this category of credit; , (3) In any amount, if the extension of credit is secured in a manner described in § 215.4(d)(3)(i)(A) through (d)(3)(i)(C) of this part; and , (4) For any other purpose not specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, if the aggregate amount of extensions of credit to that executive officer under this paragraph does not exceed at any one time the higher of 2.5 per cent of the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus or $25,000, but in no event more than $100,000. , (d) Any extension of credit by a member bank to any of its executive officers shall be: , (1) Promptly reported to the member bank's board of directors; , (2) In compliance with the requirements of § 215.4(a) of this part; , (3) Preceded by the submission of a detailed current financial statement of the executive officer; and , (4) Made subject to the condition in writing that the extension of credit will, at the option of the member bank, become due and payable at any time that the officer is indebted to any other bank or banks in an aggregate amount greater than the amount specified for a category of credit in paragraph (c) of this section. ", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) In general - (1) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3(a) for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan., (2) Exceptions. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if:, (i) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;, (ii) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of § 760.3(a);, (iii) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:, (A) Meets the requirements of § 760.3(a);, (B) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and, (C) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;, (iv) The loan is a home equity line of credit;, (v) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or, (vi) The loan has a term of not longer than 12 months., (3) Duration of exception. If a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply, then the credit union or its servicer shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3(a) as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA)., (4) Escrow account. The credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due., (b) Notice. For any loan for which a credit union is required to escrow under paragraph (a) or paragraph (c)(2) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (a)(3) of this section during the term of the loan, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under § 760.9 informing the borrower that the credit union is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A., (c) Small lender exception - (1) Qualification. Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (a), (b) and (d) of this section do not apply to a credit union:, (i) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and, (ii) On or before July 6, 2012:, (A) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and, (B) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home., (2) Change in status. If a credit union previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the credit union must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status., (d) Option to escrow - (1) In general. A credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3 for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the credit union has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:, (i) The credit union or the loan qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, respectively;, (ii) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or, (iii) The credit union is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section., (2) Notice. For any loan subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the credit union has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this part., (3) Timing. The credit union or servicer must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the credit union or servicer receives the borrower's request to escrow.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Notice of Funding Opportunity. NCUA will publish a Notice of Funding Opportunity in the Federal Register and on its Web site. The Notice of Funding Opportunity will describe the loan and technical assistance grant programs for the period in which funds are available. It also will announce special initiatives, the amount of funds available, funding priorities, permissible uses of funds, funding limits, deadlines, and other pertinent details. The Notice of Funding Opportunity will also advise potential applicants on how to obtain an Application and related materials. NCUA may supplement the information contained in the Notice of Funding Opportunity through such other media as it determines appropriate, including Letters to Credit Unions, press releases, direct notices to Qualifying Credit Unions, and announcements on its Web site., (b) Application requirements. A Qualifying Credit Union must demonstrate a sound financial position and ability to manage its day-to-day business affairs. It also must show that its planned use of proceeds is consistent with the purpose of the Program, the requirements of this part, and the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. The related Notice of Funding Opportunity may include additional details and requirements., (1) Applications to participate and qualify for a loan or technical assistance grant under the Program may be obtained from the National Credit Union Administration as outlined in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity., (2) With respect to loans, NCUA will also require a Qualifying Credit Union to develop and submit a narrative describing how the Qualifying Credit Union intends to use the money obtained from the Fund to enhance the products or services it provides to its membership and how those enhanced products or services support the membership and community served by the Qualifying Credit Union., (3) In addition to those items required in this section, a Qualifying Credit Union that is a non-federally insured credit union must also include the following:, (i) A copy of its most recent external audit report;, (ii) Proof of deposit and surety bond insurance which states the maximum insurance levels permitted by the policies;, (iii) A balance sheet, an income and expense statement, and a schedule of delinquent loans, for each of the four most recent quarter-ends;, (iv) Documentation of the credit union's status as a low-income credit union by the appropriate state supervisory agency consistent with NCUA Rules and Regulations at §§ 701.34(a) and 741.204(b); and, (v) An agreement to be subject to examination by NCUA., (c) Evaluation and selection of Qualifying Credit Unions. NCUA will generally evaluate applications submitted by Qualifying Credit Unions in accordance with the criteria described in this section. Nothing in this section, however, precludes NCUA from considering other criteria included in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity that NCUA determines to be necessary based on the type of funding initiative, economic environment, or other factors or conditions that warrant the evaluation of additional or alternative criteria. Generally, NCUA will evaluate complete applications to determine if the Qualifying Credit Union satisfies the following:, (1) Financial and Performance. The Qualifying Credit Union must exhibit a safe and sound financial condition, including a demonstrated ability to perform the requirements associated with the type of award being sought and compliance with NCUA's underwriting standards. In this respect, NCUA will consider the Qualifying Credit Union's long-term financial viability, including absence of indicators suggesting the Qualifying Credit Union is a candidate for merger, a purchase and assumption transaction, or conservatorship. NCUA will also consider the Qualifying Credit Union's compliance with the provisions of any previous loan or technical assistance grant received. NCUA may also consider information concerning the Qualifying Credit Union to which it already has access, including information obtained through the examination process and data contained in Call Reports., (2) Compatibility. NCUA will evaluate whether the stated objectives to be accomplished through the use of the loan or technical assistance grant proceeds conform to the broad purposes and rationale underlying the Fund. Specifically, NCUA will consider whether the award will enable the Qualifying Credit Union to provide basic financial products and related services to its members or enhance its capacity to better serve its members and the community in which it operates. NCUA will also consider whether the use of the financial award will conform to any applicable funding priority, special initiative, or special instruction announced in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity., (3) Feasibility. NCUA will consider the likelihood of the Qualifying Credit Union's success in accomplishing its stated objectives, based on its Application and the factors NCUA determines are relevant., (4) Examination Information and Applicable Concurrence. In evaluating a Qualifying Credit Union, NCUA will consider all information provided by NCUA staff or state supervisory authority staff that performed the Qualifying Credit Union's most recent examination. In addition:, (i) NCUA will only provide a loan to a qualifying federal credit union with the concurrence of that credit union's supervising Regional Director; and, (ii) NCUA will only provide a loan to a qualifying state-charted credit union with the written concurrence of the applicable Regional Director and the credit union's state supervisory authority. A qualifying state-chartered credit union should notify its state supervisory authority that it is applying for a loan from the Fund before submitting its application to NCUA. However, a qualifying state-chartered credit union is not required to obtain concurrence before applying for a loan. NCUA will obtain the concurrence directly from the state supervisory authority rather than through the qualifying state-chartered credit union. Additionally, before NCUA will provide a loan to a qualifying state-charted credit union the credit union must make copies of its state examination reports available to NCUA and agree to examination by NCUA., (d) Requests for additional information. NCUA will make its funding determinations among the several qualified Applications based on its discretion and consideration of which best meet the priorities and initiatives established and announced by NCUA. During its evaluation process, however, NCUA may request a Qualifying Credit Union to provide additional clarifying or technical information to support its application. NCUA may determine not to provide further consideration of any Application failing to provide additional required information., (e) Timing. NCUA will announce, in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity, the deadline for Qualifying Credit Unions to submit all required documentation, including the Application. Failure to submit all of the requested information or to submit the information within the timeframe specified in the Notice of Funding Opportunity, or in the case of requests for additional clarifying or technical information, within the time specified by NCUA, may result in rejection of the Application without further consideration., (f) Notice of Award. NCUA will determine whether an application meets NCUA's standards established by this part and the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. NCUA will provide written notice to a Qualifying Credit Union as to whether or not it has qualified for a loan or technical assistance grant under this part. A Qualifying Credit Union whose application has been denied for failure of a qualification may appeal that decision in accordance with § 705.10 of this part., (g) Disbursement - (1) Loans. Before NCUA will disburse a loan, the Participating Credit Union must sign the loan agreement, promissory note, and any other loan related documents. NCUA may, in its discretion, choose not to disburse the entire amount of the loan at once., (2) Technical Assistance Grants. NCUA will disburse technical assistance grants in such amounts, and in accordance with such terms and conditions, as NCUA may establish. In general, technical assistance grants are provided on a reimbursement basis, to cover expenditures approved in advance by NCUA and supported by receipts evidencing payment by the Participating Credit Union.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) For purposes of calculating its liquidity coverage ratio and the components thereof under this subpart, a Board-regulated institution shall assume an asset or transaction matures:, (1) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 249.32, on the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could accelerate the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, the Board-regulated institution should exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:, (i) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would reduce the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will exercise the option at the earliest possible date;, (ii) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would extend the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will not exercise the option to extend the maturity;, (iii) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an obligation, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the Board-regulated institution will exercise the option at the earliest possible date, except if either of the following criteria are satisfied, in which case the maturity of the obligation for purposes of this part will be the original maturity date at issuance:, (A) The original maturity of the obligation is greater than one year and the option does not go into effect for a period of 180 days following the issuance of the instrument; or, (B) The counterparty is a sovereign entity, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, or a public sector entity., (iv) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an obligation it issued, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will not exercise that option to extend the maturity; and, (v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the Board-regulated institution must determine the earliest possible contractual maturity date regardless of the notice period., (2) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 249.33, on the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could extend the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, the Board-regulated institution may exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:, (i) If the borrower has an option that would extend the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the borrower will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date;, (ii) If the borrower has an option that would reduce the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the borrower will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;, (iii) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;, (iv) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date; and, (v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the Board-regulated institution must determine the latest possible contractual maturity date based on the borrower using the entire notice period., (3) With respect to a transaction subject to § 249.33(f)(1)(iii) through (vii) (secured lending transactions) or § 249.33(f)(2)(ii) through (x) (asset exchanges), to the extent the transaction is secured by collateral that has been pledged in connection with either a secured funding transaction or asset exchange that has a remaining maturity of 30 calendar days or less as of the calculation date, the maturity date is the later of the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the secured lending transaction or asset exchange or the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction or asset exchange for which the collateral has been pledged., (4) With respect to a transaction that has an open maturity, is not an operational deposit, and is subject to the provisions of § 249.32(h)(2), (h)(5), (j), or (k) or § 249.33(d) or (f), the maturity date is the first calendar day after the calculation date. Any other transaction that has an open maturity and is subject to the provisions of § 249.32 shall be considered to mature within 30 calendar days of the calculation date., (5) With respect to a transaction subject to the provisions of § 249.33(g), on the date of the next scheduled calculation of the amount required under applicable legal requirements for the protection of customer assets with respect to each broker-dealer segregated account, in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's normal frequency of recalculating such requirements., (b) Reserved", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "Banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks, under policies adopted by their boards of directors, may issue, advise, or confirm import or export letters of credit in accordance with the Uniform Commercial Code, or the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, to or on behalf of its customers. In addition, as a matter of sound banking practice, letters of credit shall be issued in conformity with the list which follows., (a) Each letter of credit shall be in writing and shall conspicuously state that it is a letter of credit, or be conspicuously entitled as such., (b) The letter of credit shall contain a specified expiration date or be for a definite term., (c) The letter of credit shall contain a sum certain., (d) The bank's obligation to pay should arise only upon fulfilling the terms and conditions as specified in the letter of credit. The bank must not be called upon to determine questions of fact or law at issue between the account party and the beneficiary., (e) The bank's customer should have an unqualified obligation to reimburse the bank for payments made under the letter of credit., (f) All letters of credit shall be irrevocable.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Funding Corporation to perform functions with respect to the issuance of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities offered and sold by the Funding Corporation, in accordance with the Securities Documentation, and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars; to service and maintain Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities in accounts established for such purposes; to make payments of principal and interest with respect to such Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities as directed by the Funding Corporation; to effect transfer of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities between Participants' Securities Accounts as directed by the Participants; and to perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Funding Corporation. , (b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this Part, governing the details of its handling of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities, Security Entitlements, and the operation of the Book-Entry System under this Part. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Scope. This part applies to each insured depository institution that qualifies as a “records entity” under the definition set forth in § 371.2(r)., (b) Purpose. This part establishes recordkeeping requirements with respect to qualified financial contracts for insured depository institutions that are in a troubled condition., (c) Compliance dates. (1) Within 3 business days of becoming a records entity, the records entity shall provide to the FDIC, in writing, the name and contact information for the person at the records entity who is responsible for recordkeeping under this part and, unless not required to maintain files in electronic form pursuant to § 371.4(d), a directory of the electronic files that will be used to maintain the information required to be kept by this part., (2) Except as provided in § 371.6:, (i) A records entity, other than an accelerated records entity, shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 270 days after it becomes a records entity., (ii) An accelerated records entity shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 60 days after it becomes a records entity., (iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, a records entity that becomes an accelerated records entity after it became a records entity shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 60 days after it becomes an accelerated records entity or its original 270 day compliance period, whichever time period is shorter., (d) Extensions of time to comply. The FDIC may, in its discretion, grant one or more extensions of time for compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of this part., (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no single extension for a records entity shall be for a period of more than 120 days., (2) For a records entity that is an accelerated records entity at the time of a request for an extension, no single extension shall be for a period of more than 30 days., (3) A records entity may request an extension of time by submitting a written request to the FDIC at least 15 days prior to the deadline for its compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of this part. The written request for an extension must contain a statement of the reasons why the records entity cannot comply by the deadline for compliance, a project plan (including timeline) for achieving compliance, and a progress report describing the steps taken to achieve compliance.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Mandatory supervisory actions - (1) Provisions applicable to all FDIC-supervised institutions. All FDIC-supervised institutions are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of capital distributions and management fees., (2) Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution. Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the FDIC-supervised institution is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, it shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:, (i) Restricting payment of capital distributions and management fees (section 38(d) of the FDI Act);, (ii) Requiring that the FDIC monitor the condition of the FDIC-supervised institution (section 38(e)(1) of the FDI Act);, (iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act);, (iv) Restricting the growth of the FDIC-supervised institution's assets (section 38(e)(3) of the FDI Act); and, (v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 38(e)(4) of the FDI Act)., (3) Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institutions. In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the FDIC-supervised institution is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because the FDIC-supervised institution failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the FDIC-supervised institution shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4) of the FDI Act)., (4) Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized institutions. (i) In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the insured depository institution is critically undercapitalized, the institution is prohibited from doing any of the following without the FDIC's prior written approval:, (A) Entering into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business, including any investment, expansion, acquisition, sale of assets, or other similar action with respect to which the depository institution is required to provide notice to the appropriate Federal banking agency;, (B) Extending credit for any highly leveraged transaction;, (C) Amending the institution's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order;, (D) Making any material change in accounting methods;, (E) Engaging in any covered transaction (as defined in section 23A(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)));, (F) Paying excessive compensation or bonuses;, (G) Paying interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would increase the institution's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the institution's normal market areas; and, (H) Making any principal or interest payment on subordinated debt beginning 60 days after becoming critically undercapitalized except that this restriction shall not apply, until July 15, 1996, with respect to any subordinated debt outstanding on July 15, 1991, and not extended or otherwise renegotiated after July 15, 1991., (ii) In addition, the FDIC may further restrict the activities of any critically undercapitalized institution to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act., (iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must remain in compliance with the plan or is operating under a written agreement with the appropriate Federal banking agency., (b) Discretionary supervisory actions. In taking any action under section 38 of the FDI Act that is within the FDIC's discretion to take in connection with:, (1) An insured depository institution that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; or, (2) An officer or director of such institution, the FDIC shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under §§ 308.201 and 308.203 of this chapter, unless otherwise provided in section 38 of the FDI Act or this subpart H.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice - (1) Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification - (i) Grounds for reclassification. (A) Pursuant to § 324.403(d) of this chapter, the FDIC may reclassify a well-capitalized FDIC-supervised institution as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:, (1) The FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution is in unsafe or unsound condition; or, (2) The FDIC, pursuant to section 8(b)(8) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(8)), deems the FDIC-supervised institution to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency., (B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall be referred to in this section as reclassification., (ii) Prior notice to institution. Prior to taking action pursuant to § 324.403(d) of this chapter, the FDIC shall issue and serve on the FDIC-supervised institution a written notice of the FDIC's intention to reclassify it., (2) Contents of notice. A notice of intention to reclassify an FDIC-supervised institution based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include:, (i) A statement of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the FDIC-supervised institution would be reclassified;, (ii) The reasons for reclassification of the FDIC-supervised institution; and, (iii) The date by which the FDIC-supervised institution subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the FDIC a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the FDIC-supervised institution or other relevant circumstances., (3) Response to notice of proposed reclassification. An FDIC-supervised institution may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the FDIC. The response should include:, (i) An explanation of why the FDIC-supervised institution is not in an unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; and, (ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the FDIC-supervised institution regarding the reclassification., (4) Failure to file response. Failure by an FDIC-supervised institution to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the FDIC to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification., (5) Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses. The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the FDIC under this section. If the FDIC-supervised institution desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the FDIC-supervised institution shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses., (6) Order for informal hearing. Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the FDIC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the FDIC allows further time at the request of the FDIC-supervised institution. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the FDIC before a presiding officer(s) designated by the FDIC to conduct the hearing., (7) Hearing procedures. (i) The FDIC-supervised institution shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The FDIC-supervised institution may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the FDIC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the FDIC orders that such procedures shall apply., (ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the FDIC-supervised institution upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness., (iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record., (8) Recommendation of presiding officers. Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the FDIC on the reclassification., (9) Time for decision. Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the FDIC will decide whether to reclassify the FDIC-supervised institution and notify the FDIC-supervised institution of the FDIC's decision., (b) Request for rescission of reclassification. Any FDIC-supervised institution that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the reclassification and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the FDIC-supervised institution shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the FDIC.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act or event from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day so computed shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the period of time prescribed or allowed is 10 days or less, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays shall not be included in the computation., (b) Service by mail. Whenever any party has the right or is required to do some act within the period of time prescribed in this subpart after the service upon the party of any document or other paper of any kind, and such service is made by mail, three days shall be added to the prescribed period from the date when the matter served is deposited in the United States mail. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) This part interprets several of the provisions of Sections 107(7), 107(8), and 107(15) of the Federal Credit Union Act (Act), 12 U.S.C. 1757(7), 1757(8), 1757(15), which list those securities, deposits, and other obligations in which a Federal credit union may invest. Part 703 identifies certain investments and deposit activities permissible under the Act and prescribes regulations governing those investments and deposit activities on the basis of safety and soundness concerns. Additionally, part 703 identifies and prohibits certain investments and deposit activities. Investments and deposit activities that are permissible under the Act and not prohibited or otherwise regulated by part 703 remain permissible for Federal credit unions. , (b) This part does not apply to: , (1) Investment in loans to members and related activities, which is governed by §§ 701.21, 701.22, 701.23, and part 723 of this chapter; , (2) The purchase of real estate-secured loans pursuant to Section 107(15)(A) of the Act, which is governed by § 701.23 of this chapter, except those real estate-secured loans purchased as a part of an investment repurchase transaction, which is governed by §§ 703.13 and 703.14 of this chapter;, (3) Investment in credit union service organizations, which is governed by part 712 of this chapter; , (4) Investment in fixed assets, which is governed by § 701.36 of this chapter; , (5) Investment by corporate credit unions, which is governed by part 704 of this chapter. , (6) Investment activity by State-chartered credit unions, except as provided in §§ 741.3(a)(2) and 741.219 of this chapter; or, (7) Funding a Charitable Donation Account pursuant to § 721.3(b) of this chapter.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must report to the Board on an annual basis the results of an internal liquidity stress test for either the consolidated operations of the foreign banking organization or the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. Such liquidity stress test must be conducted consistent with the Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management and must incorporate 30-day, 90-day, and one-year stress-test horizons. The “Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management” means the document titled “Principles for Sound Liquidity Risk Management and Supervision” (September 2008) as published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as supplemented and revised from time to time., (b) A foreign banking organization that does not comply with paragraph (a) of this section must limit the net aggregate amount owed by the foreign banking organization's non-U.S. offices and its non-U.S. affiliates to the combined U.S. operations to 25 percent or less of the third party liabilities of its combined U.S. operations, on a daily basis.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The rules formerly at 12 CFR part 761 have been republished by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at 12 CFR part 1007, “S.A.F.E. Mortgage Licensing Act - Federal Registration of Residential Mortgage Loan Originators (Regulation G)”.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Notice of submission to NCUA Board. When the NCUA Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the NCUA Board shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the NCUA Board for final decision. , (b) Oral argument before NCUA Board. Upon the initiative of the NCUA Board or on the written request of any party filed with the NCUA Board within the time for filing exceptions, the NCUA Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the NCUA Board's final decision. Oral argument before the NCUA Board must be on the record. , (c) Final Decision of NCUA Board. (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the NCUA Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the NCUA Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the NCUA Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties. , (2) The NCUA Board shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the NCUA Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the NCUA Board shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the NCUA Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "You may request expedited processing of your request if you can show a compelling need for the records. In cases where your request for expedited processing is granted or if NCUA has determined to expedite the response, it will be processed as soon as practicable., (a) To demonstrate a compelling need for expedited processing, you must provide a certified statement. The statement, certified by you to be true and correct to the best of your knowledge and belief, must demonstrate that:, (1) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or, (2) The requester is a representative of the news media, as defined in § 792.20, and there is urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged NCUA activity., (b) In response to a request for expedited processing, the Information Center will notify you of the determination within ten working days of receipt of the request. If the Information Center denies your request for expedited processing, you may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 792.28, and NCUA will expeditiously respond to the appeal., (c) The Information Center will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks. However, in NCUA's discretion, a particular request may be processed out of turn.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Audited financial statements. Each insured depository institution shall prepare annual financial statements in accordance with GAAP, which shall be audited by an independent public accountant. The annual financial statements must reflect all material correcting adjustments necessary to conform with GAAP that were identified by the independent public accountant., (b) Management report. Each insured depository institution annually shall prepare, as of the end of the institution's most recent fiscal year, a management report that must contain the following:, (1) A statement of management's responsibilities for preparing the institution's annual financial statements, for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, and for complying with laws and regulations relating to safety and soundness that are designated by the FDIC and the appropriate Federal banking agency;, (2) An assessment by management of the insured depository institution's compliance with such laws and regulations during such fiscal year. The assessment must state management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution has complied with the designated safety and soundness laws and regulations during the fiscal year and disclose any noncompliance with these laws and regulations; and, (3) For an insured depository institution with consolidated total assets of $1 billion or more as of the beginning of such fiscal year, an assessment by management of the effectiveness of such internal control structure and procedures as of the end of such fiscal year that must include the following:, (i) A statement identifying the internal control framework 14 used by management to evaluate the effectiveness of the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting;, 14 For example, in the United States, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) of the Treadway Commission has published Internal Control - Integrated Framework, including an addendum on safeguarding assets. Known as the COSO report, this publication provides a suitable and available framework for purposes of management's assessment., (ii) A statement that the assessment included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and, (iii) A statement expressing management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of its fiscal year. Management must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting, if any, that it has identified that have not been remediated prior to the insured depository institution's fiscal year-end. Management is precluded from concluding that the institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses., (c) Management report signatures. Subject to the criteria specified in § 363.1(b):, (1) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the insured depository institution level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the insured depository institution;, (2) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the holding company level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the holding company; and, (3) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and (i) the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level or (ii) one or more of the components of the management report specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied at the holding company level and the remaining components of the management report are satisfied at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officers and the chief accounting officers or chief financial officers of both the holding company and the insured depository institution and the management report must clearly indicate the level (institution or holding company) at which each of its components is being satisfied.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Solicitation of memberships, dues or other internal labor organization business shall be conducted during the nonduty hours of the employees concerned. Officially requested or approved consultation between management executives and representatives of a labor organization shall, whenever practicable, be conducted on official time, but the President or a duly authorized officer of a Bank may require that negotiations with a labor organization be conducted during the nonduty hours of the Bank.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Scope. This section applies to banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq., and 611 et seq.), and bank holding companies and affiliates of such holding companies (other than depository institutions and consumer reporting agencies)., (b) Limits on redisclosure. If a person described in paragraph (a) of this section receives medical information about a consumer from a consumer reporting agency or its affiliate, the person must not disclose that information to any other person, except as necessary to carry out the purpose for which the information was initially disclosed, or as otherwise permitted by statute, regulation, or order.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Available approaches. (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 324.152(b)(3)(i), an FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alternative modified look-through approach in paragraph (d) of this section., (2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 324.152(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value., (3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the FDIC-supervised institution does not use the full look-through approach, the FDIC-supervised institution may use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 324.152(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value., (b) Full look-through approach. An FDIC-supervised institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart E of this part as if the proportional ownership share of each exposure were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution) may either:, (1) Set the risk-weighted asset amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:, (i) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution; and, (ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's proportional ownership share of the fund; or, (2) Include the FDIC-supervised institution's proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the fund in the FDIC-supervised institution's IMA., (c) Simple modified look-through approach. Under this approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight assigned according to subpart D of this part that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under its prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures)., (d) Alternative modified look-through approach. Under this approach, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories assigned according to subpart D of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure class multiplied by the applicable risk weight. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest risk weight under subpart D of this part, and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest risk weight under subpart D of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. An FDIC-supervised institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) When. Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice. , (b) Content of answer. An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent. , (c) Default - (1) Effect of failure to answer. Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent. , (2) Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings. If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Purpose. This subpart grants Federal credit unions limited authority to enter into Derivatives only for the purpose of managing Interest Rate Risk., (b) Scope. This subpart applies to all Federal credit unions. Except as provided in § 741.219, this rule does not apply to federally insured, state-chartered credit unions., (c) Prior approvals. Any Federal credit union with an active approval, under the prior version of this subpart, on June 25, 2021 is subject to the provisions of this subpart and is no longer subject to the restrictions, limits, or terms contained in the Federal credit union's approved application., (d) Pending Approvals. Any application for Derivatives authority pending on June 25, 2021, except for such applications submitted by a Federal credit union that would be subject to the requirements of § 703.108(b), is deemed to be withdrawn and such applicant is subject to the provisions of this subpart.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Payment. In the event of the liquidation of an insured credit union, the Board will promptly determine the insured accountholders thereof and the amount of the insured account or accounts of each such accountholder. Payment may be in cash, or its equivalent, or may be made by making available to each accountholder a transferred account in a new federally insured credit union in the same community or in another federally insured credit union or institution in an amount equal to the accountholder's insured account. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may withhold payment of such portion of the insured account of any member as may be required to provide for payment of any direct or indirect liability to the closed credit union or the liquidating agent, which is not offset against a claim due from such credit union, pending the determination and payment of such liability by the member of or any person liable therefor., (b) Amount of insurance. The amount of insurance on an insured account shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of Subpart A of this part and the Federal Credit Union Act. For the purpose of determining insurance coverage, dividends earned in the ordinary course of business and posted to share accounts for any prior accounting or dividend period shall be deemed to be principal under this part. Dividends earned or accrued in the ordinary course of business, but not posted to share accounts, may be paid at the discretion of the liquidating agent. In making such determination, the liquidating agent will take into consideration whether the failure to post dividends earned or accrued was due to the fraud, embezzlement or accounting errors of credit union personnel. The liquidating agent may require an accountholder to submit documentation supporting any claim for unposted dividends not otherwise evidenced in the credit union records. However, in no event will dividend amounts be considered as principal for insurance purposes pursuant to this section if not consistent with the amounts paid on similar classes of shares. , (c) Multiple accounts. In the event an insured member holds more than one insured account in the same capacity, and the aggregate amount of such accounts (including share draft accounts held in such capacity) exceeds the amount of insurance afforded thereon, the insurance coverage will be prorated among the member's interest in all accounts held in the same capacity. In the case of individual accounts, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the holder of the account, whether or not the holder is the beneficial owner. In the case of accounts which are owned jointly, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the owners jointly. In the case of trust estates, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the indicated trustee unless otherwise provided for in the trust instrument or under state law. In the case of corporations, partnerships and unincorporated associations engaged in an independent activity, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the indicated holder of the account. Where insurance payment is in the form of a transferred account to another insured institution, the same rules shall be applied., (d) Computing time. In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the provisions of § 747.12(a) shall apply. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) A Farm Credit institution that directly or through third parties engages in any form of advertising shall not use words, phrases, symbols, directions, forms, or models in such advertising which express, imply or suggest a policy of discrimination or exclusion in violation of the provisions of title VIII (the Fair Housing Act) of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended by the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 3601-3631); the Department of Housing and Urban Development's implementing regulations (24 CFR parts 100 and 109), and title VII (the Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended by the Equal Credit Opportunity Act Amendments of 1976 (15 U.S.C. 1691-1691f); and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System's implementing regulation (12 CFR part 202), or this subpart., (b) Written advertisements relating to dwellings shall include a facsimile of the following logotype and legend: ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) A natural person credit union may become a Regular member of the Facility by:, (1) Making application on a form approved by the Facility;, (2) Subscribing to capital stock of the Facility in an amount equal to one-half of 1 percent of the credit union's paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, as determined in accordance with § 725.5(b) of this part, and forwarding with its completed application funds equal to one-half of this stock subscription; and, (3) Furnishing the following reports and documents with the completed membership application:, (i) A copy of the credit union's financial and statistical report for the most recent calendar month; and, (ii) Copies of the credit union's charter and bylaws, unless the credit union is federally chartered. , (b) Reserved", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) What internal controls and records are necessary? - (1) General. A financial holding company, including a private equity fund controlled by a financial holding company, that makes investments under this part must establish and maintain policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to conduct, monitor and manage such investment activities and the risks associated with such investment activities in a safe and sound manner, including policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to: , (i) Monitor and assess the carrying value, market value and performance of each investment and the aggregate portfolio;, (ii) Identify and manage the market, credit, concentration and other risks associated with such investments; , (iii) Identify, monitor and assess the terms, amounts and risks arising from transactions and relationships (including contingent fees or contingent interests) with each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this part; , (iv) Ensure the maintenance of corporate separateness between the financial holding company and each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this part and protect the financial holding company and its depository institution subsidiaries from legal liability for the operations conducted and financial obligations of each such company; and, (v) Ensure compliance with this part. , (2) Availability of records. A financial holding company must make the policies, procedures and records required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section available to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank upon request. , (b) Certain additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements for merchant banking investments are set forth in the Board's Regulation Y, 12 CFR 225.175. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) External total loss-absorbing capacity requirement. A global systemically important BHC must maintain an outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greater of:, (1) 18 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total risk-weighted assets; and, (2) 7.5 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total leverage exposure., (b) Outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount. A global systemically important BHC's outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount is the sum of:, (1) The global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest);, (2) The global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest); and, (3) The global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years)., (c) External TLAC buffer - (1) Composition of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer. The external TLAC risk-weighted buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital., (2) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:, (i) Eligible retained income. The eligible retained income of a global systemically important BHC is the greater of:, (A) The global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and, (B) The average of the global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter., (ii) Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio. The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63., (iii) Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount. A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63., (iv) Maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio. The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63., (v) Maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount. A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum TLAC leverage payout ratio, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63., (3) Calculation of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level. (i) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:, (A) 18 percent; minus, (B) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) to its total risk-weighted assets; and minus, (C) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total risk-weighted assets., (ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to 18 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is zero., (4) Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments. (i) A global systemically important BHC shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount., (ii) A global systemically important BHC with an external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level that is greater than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer and an external TLAC leverage buffer that is greater than 2.0 percent, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section, is not subject to a maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or a maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount., (iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, a global systemically important BHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the global systemically important BHC's:, (A) Eligible retained income is negative; and, (B) External TLAC risk-weighted buffer level was less than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer as of the end of the previous calendar quarter or external TLAC leverage buffer level was less than 2.0 percent as of the end of the previous calendar quarter., (iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a global systemically important BHC to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the global systemically important BHC, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the global systemically important BHC. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request., (v)(A) A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lowest of the maximum payout amounts as determined under 12 CFR 217.11(a)(2), the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under this paragraph, and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under this paragraph., (B) Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, and 263.202., (5) External TLAC leverage buffer - (i) General. A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lower of the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section., (ii) Composition of the external TLAC leverage buffer. The external TLAC leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital., (iii) Calculation of the external TLAC leverage buffer level. (A) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's supplementary leverage ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:, (1) 7.5 percent; minus, (2) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total leverage exposure., (B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its total leverage exposure is less than or equal to 7.5 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is zero.,

Table 1 to § 252.63 - Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Risk-Weighted Payout Amount,

Table 2 to § 252.63 - Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Leverage Payout Amount", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Authority. This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.) and the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA) (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.). , (b) Purpose and scope. This subpart is in furtherance of the purposes of the BHC Act and the IBA. It applies to foreign banks and foreign banking organizations with respect to: , (1) The limitations on interstate banking under section 5 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103); , (2) The exemptions from the nonbanking prohibitions of the BHC Act and the IBA afforded by sections 2(h) and 4(c)(9) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(h), 1843(c)(9)); , (3) Board approval of the establishment of an office of a foreign bank in the United States under sections 7(d) and 10(a) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d), 3107(a)); , (4) The termination by the Board of a foreign bank's representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary under sections 7(e) and 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(e), 3107(b)), and the transmission of a recommendation to the Comptroller to terminate a federal branch or federal agency under section 7(e)(5) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(e)(5)); , (5) The examination of an office or affiliate of a foreign bank in the United States as provided in sections 7(c) and 10(c) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(c), 3107(c)); , (6) The disclosure of supervisory information to a foreign supervisor under section 15 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3109); , (7) The limitations on loans to one borrower by state branches and state agencies of a foreign bank under section 7(h)(2) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(h)(2)); , (8) The limitation of a state branch and a state agency to conducting only activities that are permissible for a federal branch under section (7)(h)(1) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(h)(1)); and , (9) The deposit insurance requirement for retail deposit taking by a foreign bank under section 6 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3104). , (10) The management of shell branches (12 U.S.C. 3105(k)). , (c) Additional requirements. Compliance by a foreign bank with the requirements of this subpart and the laws administered and enforced by the Board does not relieve the foreign bank of responsibility to comply with the laws and regulations administered by the licensing authority. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) This regulation applies to demands or requests for records, information, or testimony, in legal proceedings in which FHFA is not a named party., (b) This regulation does not apply to:, (1) Demands or requests for an FHFA employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of FHFA;, (2) Requests for the release of non-exempt records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a; or, (3) Congressional demands or requests for records or testimony.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) As a condition for extending funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI, each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall require every OFI to:, (1) Execute a general financing agreement pursuant to the regulations in subpart C of part 614; and, (2) Purchase non-voting stock in its Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank pursuant to the bank's bylaws., (b) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall extend funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI only for purposes and terms authorized under sections 1.10(b) and 2.4(a) and (b) of the Act., (c) Rural home loans to borrowers who are not bona fide farmers, ranchers, and aquatic producers and harvesters are subject to the restrictions in § 613.3030 of this chapter. Loans that an OFI makes to processing and marketing operators who supply less than 20 percent of the throughput shall be included in the calculation that § 613.3010(b)(1) of this chapter establishes for Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks., (d) The borrower rights requirements in part C of title IV of the Act, and the regulations in part 617 of this chapter shall apply to all loans that an OFI funds or discounts through a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, unless such loans are subject to the Truth-in-Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1601 et seq., (e) As a condition for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, all State banks, trust companies, or State-chartered savings associations shall execute a written consent that authorizes their State regulators to furnish examination reports to the Farm Credit Administration upon its request. Any OFI that is not a depository institution shall consent in writing to examination by the Farm Credit Administration as a condition precedent for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, and file such consent with its Farm Credit funding bank.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General provision. To qualify as AMA, any assets described in § 1268.3 must be acquired in a purchase or funding transaction only from:, (1) A participating financial institution, provided that the asset was:, (i) Originated or issued by, through, or on behalf of the participating financial institution, or an affiliate thereof; or, (ii) Held for a valid business purpose by the participating financial institution, or an affiliate thereof, prior to acquisition by the Bank; or, (2) Another Bank, provided that the asset was originally acquired by the selling Bank consistent with this section., (b) Special provision for housing finance agency bonds. In the case of housing finance agency bonds acquired by a Bank from a housing associate located in the district of another Bank (local Bank), the arrangement required by the definition of “participating financial institution” in § 1268.1 between the acquiring Bank and the local Bank may be reached in accordance with the following process:, (1) The housing finance agency shall first offer the local Bank right of first refusal to purchase, or negotiate the terms of, its proposed bond offering;, (2) If the local Bank indicates, within three business days, it will negotiate in good faith to purchase the bonds, the housing finance agency may not offer to sell or negotiate the terms of a purchase with another Bank; and, (3) If the local Bank declines the offer, or has failed to respond within three business days, the acquiring Bank will be considered to have an arrangement with the local Bank for purposes of this section and may offer to buy or negotiate the terms of a bond sale with the housing finance agency.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "On a determination by the receiver that there are insufficient assets of the receivership to pay all valid claims against the receivership, the receiver shall submit to the Secretary of the Treasury and Congress a report on the financial condition of the receivership. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Under the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Title IX, Pub. L. 98-181, 97 Stat. 1153) (12 U.S.C. 3901 et seq.) (ILSA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation prescribes the regulations in this subpart relating to international lending activities of banks.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Farm Credit Banks. No Farm Credit Bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed 15 percent of the bank's lending and leasing limit base. , (b) Agricultural credit banks. (1) No agricultural credit bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower under the authority of title I of the Act if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed 15 percent of the bank's lending and leasing limit base. , (2) No agricultural credit bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower under the authority of title III of the Act if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed the lending and leasing limits prescribed in § 614.4355 of this subpart. ", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) General rule. As provided in section 1379B(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4639(b)), all hearings shall be open to the public, except that the Director, in his discretion, may determine that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. The Director may make such determination sua sponte at any time by written notice to all parties, or as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section., (b) Motion for closed hearing. Within 20 days of service of the notice of charges, any party may file with the presiding officer a motion for a private hearing and any party may file a pleading in reply to the motion. The presiding officer shall forward the motion and any reply, together with a recommended decision on the motion, to the Director, who shall make a final determination. Such motions and replies are governed by § 1209.28 of this part. A determination under this section is committed to the discretion of the Director and is not a reviewable final agency action., (c) Filing documents under seal. FHFA counsel of record, in his discretion, may file or require the filing of any document or part of a document under seal, if such counsel makes a written determination that disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The presiding officer shall issue an order to govern confidential information, and take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents in whole or in part, including closing any portion of a hearing to the public or issuing a protective order under such terms as may be acceptable to FHFA counsel of record., (d) Procedures for closed hearing. An evidentiary hearing, or any part thereof, that is closed for the purpose of offering into evidence testimony or documents filed under seal as provided in paragraph (c) of this section shall be conducted under procedures that may include: prior notification to the submitter of confidential information; provisions for sealing portions of the record, briefs, and decisions; in camera arguments, offers of proof, and testimony; and limitations on representatives of record or other participants, as the presiding officer may designate. Additionally, at such proceedings the presiding officer may make an opening statement as to the confidentiality and limitations and deliver an oath to the parties, representatives of record, or other approved participants as to the confidentiality of the proceedings.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Pursuant to policies approved by the board of directors, differential interest rates may be established for loans based on a variety of factors that may include type, purpose, amount, quality, funding or operating costs, or similar factors or combinations of factors. Differential interest rate programs should achieve equitable rate treatment within categories of borrowers. In the adoption of differential interest rate programs, institutions may consider, among other things, the effect that such interest rate structures will have on the achievement of objectives relating to the special credit needs of young, beginning or small farmers. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366., (b) Purpose. This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Except as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section, an offering circular filed by a State savings association shall be deemed to be automatically declared effective by the FDIC on the twentieth day after filing or on such earlier date as the FDIC may determine for good cause shown., (b) If any amendment is filed prior to the effective date, the offering circular shall be deemed to have been filed when such amendment was filed., (c) The period until automatic effectiveness under this subpart shall be stated at the bottom of the facing page of the Form OC or any amendment., (d) The effectiveness will be delayed if a duly authorized amendment, telegram confirmed in writing, or letter states that the effective date is delayed until a further amendment is filed specifically stating that the offering circular will become effective in accordance with this subpart., (e) An amendment filed after the effective date of the offering circular shall become effective on such date as the FDIC may determine., (f) If it appears to the FDIC at any time that the offering circular includes any untrue statement of a material fact or omits to state any material fact required to be stated therein or necessary to make the statements therein not misleading, then the FDIC may pursue any remedy it is authorized to pursue under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818), including, but not limited to, institution of cease-and-desist proceedings.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Automatic membership for certain charter conversions. An insured depository institution member that converts from one charter type to another automatically shall become a member of the Bank of which the converting institution was a member on the effective date of the conversion, provided that the converted institution continues to be an insured depository institution and the assets of the institution immediately before and immediately after the conversion are not materially different. In such case, all relationships existing between the member and the Bank at the time of such conversion may continue., (b) Automatic membership for transfers. Any member that relocates its principal place of business to another Bank district or that redesignates its principal place of business to another Bank district pursuant to § 1263.18(c) automatically shall become a member of the Bank of that district upon the purchase of the minimum amount of Bank stock required for membership in that Bank, as required by § 1263.20., (c) Automatic membership, in the Bank's discretion, for certain consolidations. (1) If a member institution (or institutions) and a nonmember institution are consolidated, and the consolidated institution has its principal place of business in a State in the same Bank district as the disappearing institution (or institutions), and the consolidated institution will operate under the charter of the nonmember institution, on the effective date of the consolidation, the consolidated institution may, in the discretion of the Bank of which the disappearing institution (or institutions) was a member immediately prior to the effective date of the consolidation, automatically become a member of such Bank upon the purchase of the minimum amount of Bank stock required for membership in that Bank, as required by § 1263.20, provided that:, (i) 90 percent or more of the consolidated institution's total assets are derived from the total assets of the disappearing member institution (or institutions); and, (ii) The consolidated institution provides written notice to such Bank, within 60 calendar days after the effective date of the consolidation, that it desires to be a member of the Bank., (2) The provisions of § 1263.24(b)(4)(i) shall apply, and upon approval of automatic membership by the Bank, the provisions of § 1263.24(c) shall apply.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "Prior to the effective date of the termination of the insured status of an insured credit union under section 206(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(b)) and at such time as the Board shall specify, the credit union shall mail to each member at his or her last address of record on the books of the credit union, and publish in not less than two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation, notices of the termination of its insured status, and the credit union shall furnish the NCUA Board with proof of publication of such notice. The notice shall be as follows:, 1. The status of the ___ as an insured credit union under the provisions of the Federal Credit Union Act, will terminate as of the close of business on the __ day of __;, 2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing accounts, will not be insured by the National Credit Union Administration;, 3. Accounts in the credit union on the __ day of __, __ up to a maximum of $250,000 for each member, will continue to be insured, as provided by the Federal Credit Union Act, for one (1) year after the close of business on the __ day of __, __: Provided, however, That any withdrawals after the close of business on the day of __, __; will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Number of meetings. The board of directors of each Bank shall hold as many meetings each year as necessary and appropriate to carry out its fiduciary responsibilities with respect to the effective oversight of Bank management and such other duties and obligations as may be imposed by applicable laws, provided the board of directors of a Bank must hold a minimum of six in-person meetings in any year., (b) Site of meetings. The bank usually should hold board of director and committee meetings within the district served by the Bank. The Bank shall not hold board of director or committee meetings in any location that is not within the United States, including its possessions and territories.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) False, fictitious or fraudulent claims., (1) A civil penalty of not more than $12,537 may be imposed upon a person who makes a claim to FHFA for property, services, or money where the person knows or has reason to know that the claim: , (i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;, (ii) Includes or is supported by a written statement that:, (A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or, (B) Omits a material fact and, as a result of the omission, is false, fictitious, or fraudulent, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or, (iii) Is for payment for the provision of property or services to FHFA which the person has not provided as claimed., (2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim for purposes of this part., (3) A claim shall be considered made to FHFA, a recipient, or party when the claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, acting for or on behalf of FHFA, the recipient, or the party., (4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty, without regard to whether the property, services, or money actually is delivered or paid., (5) There is no liability under this part if the amount of money or value of property or services claimed exceeds $150,000 as to each claim that a person submits. For purposes of this paragraph (a), a group of claims submitted simultaneously as part of a single transaction shall be considered a single claim., (6) If the FHFA has made any payment, transferred property, or provided services for a claim, then FHFA may make an assessment against a person found liable in an amount of up to twice the amount of the claim or portion of the claim that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. This assessment is in addition to the amount of any civil penalty imposed., (b) False, fictitious or fraudulent statements., (1) A civil penalty of up to $12,537 may be imposed upon a person who makes a written statement to FHFA with respect to a claim, contract, bid or proposal for a contract, or benefit from FHFA that:, (i) The person knows or has reason to know:, (A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or, (B) Omits a material fact and is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; and, (ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement., (2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement., (3) A statement shall be considered made to FHFA when the statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity acting for or on behalf of FHFA., (c) Joint and several liability. A civil penalty or assessment may be imposed jointly and severally if more than one person is determined to be liable.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "A mortgage loan which permits the borrower to obtain additional sums during the term of the loan. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Civil money penalty proceedings - (1) In general. Section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636) governs the imposition of civil money penalties. Upon written notice, which shall conform to the requirements of § 1209.23 of this part, and a hearing on the record to be conducted in accordance with subpart C of this part, the Director may impose a civil money penalty on any regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party as provided by section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act for any violation, practice, or breach addressed under sections 1371, 1372, or 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, 4636), except with regard to the enforcement of housing goals that are addressed separately under sections 1341 and 1345 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4581, 4585)., (2) Amount of penalty - (i) First Tier. Section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(1)) prescribes the civil penalty for violations as stated therein, in the amount of $10,000 for each day during which a violation continues., (ii) Second Tier. Section 1376(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(2)) provides that notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) thereof, a regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of not more than $50,000 for each day during which a violation, practice, or breach continues, if the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party commits any violation described in (b)(1) thereof, recklessly engages in an unsafe or unsound practice, or breaches any fiduciary duty, and the violation, practice, or breach is part of a pattern of misconduct; causes or is likely to cause more than a minimal loss to the regulated entity; or results in pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party., (iii) Third Tier. Section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)) provides that, notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) thereof, any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty, in accordance with section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), for each day during which such violation, practice, or breach continues, if such regulated entity or entity-affiliated party:, (A) Knowingly - , (1) Commits any violation described in any subparagraph of section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act;, (2) Engages in any unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of the regulated entity; or, (3) Breaches any fiduciary duty; and, (B) Knowingly or recklessly causes a substantial loss to the regulated entity or a substantial pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party by reason of such violation, practice, or breach., (b) Maximum amounts - (1) Maximum daily penalty. Section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), prescribes the maximum daily amount of a civil penalty that may be assessed for any violation, practice, or breach pursuant to section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)), in the case of any entity-affiliated party (not to exceed $2,000,000.00), and in the case of any regulated entity ($2,000,000.00)., (2) Inflation Adjustment Act. The maximum civil penalty amounts are subject to periodic adjustment under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as provided in subpart E of this part., (c) Factors in determining amount of penalty. In accordance with section 1376(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(2)), in assessing civil money penalties on a regulated entity or an entity-affiliated party in amounts as provided in section 1376(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)), the Director shall give consideration to such factors as:, (1) The gravity of the violation, practice, or breach;, (2) Any history of prior violations or supervisory actions, or any attempts at concealment;, (3) The effect of the penalty on the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance;, (4) Any loss or risk of loss to the regulated entity or to the Office of Finance;, (5) Any benefits received or derived, whether directly or indirectly, by the respondent(s);, (6) Any injury to the public;, (7) Any deterrent effect on future violations, practices, or breaches;, (8) The financial capacity of the respondent(s), or any unusual circumstance(s) of hardship upon an executive officer, director, or other individual;, (9) The promptness, cost, and effectiveness of any effort to remedy or ameliorate the consequences of the violation, practice, or breach;, (10) The candor and cooperation, if any, of the respondent(s); and, (11) Any other factors the Director may determine by regulation to be appropriate., (d) Review of imposition of penalty. Section 1376(c)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(3)) governs judicial review of a penalty order under section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Records. The creditor shall maintain a record for each account showing the full details of all transactions., (b) Separation of accounts - (1) In general. The requirements of one account may not be met by considering items in any other account. If withdrawals of cash or securities are permitted under this part, written entries shall be made when cash or securities are used for purposes of meeting requirements in another account., (2) Exceptions. Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section:, (i) For purposes of calculating the required margin for a security in a margin account, assets held in the good faith account pursuant to § 220.6(e)(1)(i) or (ii) may serve in lieu of margin;, (ii) Transfers may be effected between the margin account and the special memorandum account pursuant to §§ 220.4 and 220.5., (c) Maintenance of credit. Except as prohibited by this part, any credit initially extended in compliance with this part may be maintained regardless of:, (1) Reductions in the customer's equity resulting from changes in market prices;, (2) Any security in an account ceasing to be margin or exempted; or, (3) Any change in the margin requirements prescribed under this part., (d) Guarantee of accounts. No guarantee of a customer's account shall be given any effect for purposes of this part., (e) Receipt of funds or securities. (1) A creditor, acting in good faith, may accept as immediate payment:, (i) Cash or any check, draft, or order payable on presentation; or, (ii) Any security with sight draft attached., (2) A creditor may treat a security, check or draft as received upon written notification from another creditor that the specified security, check, or draft has been sent., (3) Upon notification that a check, draft, or order has been dishonored or when securities have not been received within a reasonable time, the creditor shall take the action required by this part when payment or securities are not received on time., (4) To temporarily finance a customer's receipt of securities pursuant to an employee benefit plan registered on SEC Form S-8 or the withholding taxes for an employee stock award plan, a creditor may accept, in lieu of the securities, a properly executed exercise notice, where applicable, and instructions to the issuer to deliver the stock to the creditor. Prior to acceptance, the creditor must verify that the issuer will deliver the securities promptly and the customer must designate the account into which the securities are to be deposited., (f) Exchange of securities. (1) To enable a customer to participate in an offer to exchange securities which is made to all holders of an issue of securities, a creditor may submit for exchange any securities held in a margin account, without regard to the other provisions of this part, provided the consideration received is deposited into the account., (2) If a nonmargin, nonexempted security is acquired in exchange for a margin security, its retention, withdrawal, or sale within 60 days following its acquisition shall be treated as if the security is a margin security., (g) Arranging for loans by others. A creditor may arrange for the extension or maintenance of credit to or for any customer by any person, provided the creditor does not willfully arrange credit that violates parts 221 or 224 of this chapter., (h) Innocent mistakes. If any failure to comply with this part results from a mistake made in good faith in executing a transaction or calculating the amount of margin, the creditor shall not be deemed in violation of this part if, promptly after the discovery of the mistake, the creditor takes appropriate corrective action., (i) Foreign currency. (1) Freely convertible foreign currency may be treated at its U.S. dollar equivalent, provided the currency is marked-to-market daily., (2) A creditor may extend credit denominated in any freely convertible foreign currency., (j) Exempted borrowers. (1) A member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer that has been in existence for less than one year may meet the definition of exempted borrower based on a six-month period., (2) Once a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer ceases to qualify as an exempted borrower, it shall notify its lender of this fact before obtaining additional credit. Any new extensions of credit to such a borrower, including rollovers, renewals, and additional draws on existing lines of credit, are subject to the provisions of this part.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) General. (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section., (2) Where an FDIC-supervised institution commits to provide a commitment, the FDIC-supervised institution may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs., (3) Where an FDIC-supervised institution provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the FDIC-supervised institution is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment., (4) Where an FDIC-supervised institution provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit-enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable., (b) Credit conversion factors - (1) Zero percent CCF. An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a zero percent CCF to the unused portion of a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution., (2) 20 percent CCF. An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 20 percent CCF to the amount of:, (i) Commitments with an original maturity of one year or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution; and, (ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of one year or less., (3) 50 percent CCF. An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 50 percent CCF to the amount of:, (i) Commitments with an original maturity of more than one year that are not unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution; and, (ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit., (4) 100 percent CCF. An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 100 percent CCF to the amount of the following off-balance-sheet items and other similar transactions:, (i) Guarantees;, (ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the FDIC-supervised institution has sold subject to repurchase);, (iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;, (iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the FDIC-supervised institution has lent under the transaction);, (v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the FDIC-supervised institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);, (vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and, (vii) Forward agreements.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Trustee's role. (1) SIPC, as trustee for a covered broker or dealer, shall determine customer status, claims for net equity, claims for customer name securities, and whether property of the covered broker or dealer qualifies as customer property. SIPC, as trustee for a covered broker or dealer, shall make claims determinations in accordance with SIPA and with paragraph (a)(3) of this section, but such determinations, and any claims related thereto, shall be governed by the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section., (2) SIPC shall make advances in accordance with, and subject to the limitations imposed by, 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3. Where appropriate, SIPC shall make such advances by delivering cash or securities to the customer accounts established at the bridge broker or dealer., (3) Customer property held by a covered broker or dealer shall be allocated as follows:, (i) First, to SIPC in repayment of advances made by SIPC pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5385(f) and 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3(c)(1), to the extent such advances effected the release of securities which then were apportioned to customer property pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78fff(d);, (ii) Second, to customers of such covered broker or dealer, or in the case that customer accounts are transferred to a bridge broker or dealer, then to such customer accounts at a bridge broker or dealer, who shall share ratably in such customer property on the basis and to the extent of their respective net equities;, (iii) Third, to SIPC as subrogee for the claims of customers; and, (iv) Fourth, to SIPC in repayment of advances made by SIPC pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3(c)(2)., (4) The determinations and advances made by SIPC as trustee for a covered broker or dealer under this subpart D shall be made in a manner consistent with SIPC's customary practices under SIPA. The allocation of customer property, advances from SIPC, and delivery of customer name securities to each customer or to its customer account at a bridge broker or dealer, in partial or complete satisfaction of such customer's net equity claims as of the close of business on the appointment date, shall be in a manner, including form and timing, and in an amount at least as beneficial to such customer as would have been the case had the covered broker or dealer been liquidated under SIPA. Any claims related to determinations made by SIPC as trustee for a covered broker or dealer shall be governed by the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section., (b) Receiver's role. Any claim shall be determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2) through (5) and the regulations promulgated by the Corporation thereunder, provided however, that - , (1) Notice requirements. The notice of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for a covered broker or dealer shall also include notice of the appointment of SIPC as trustee. The Corporation as receiver shall coordinate with SIPC as trustee to post the notice on SIPC's public website in addition to the publication procedures set forth in § 380.33., (2) Procedures for filing a claim. The Corporation as receiver shall consult with SIPC, as trustee, regarding a claim form and filing instructions with respect to claims against the Corporation as receiver for a covered broker or dealer, and such information shall be provided on SIPC's public website in addition to the Corporation's public website. Any such claim form shall contain a provision permitting a claimant to claim status as a customer of the broker or dealer, if applicable., (3) Claims bar date. The Corporation as receiver shall establish a claims bar date in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2)(B)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder by which date creditors of a covered broker or dealer, including all customers of the covered broker or dealer, shall present their claims, together with proof. The claims bar date for a covered broker or dealer shall be the date following the expiration of the six-month period beginning on the date a notice to creditors to file their claims is first published in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2)(B)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder. Any claim filed after the claims bar date shall be disallowed, and such disallowance shall be final, as provided by 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(C)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder, except that a claim filed after the claims bar date shall be considered by the receiver as provided by 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(C)(ii) and any regulations promulgated thereunder. In accordance with section 8(a)(3) of SIPA, 15 U.S.C. 78fff-2(a)(3), any claim for net equity filed more than sixty days after the date the notice to creditors to file claims is first published need not be paid or satisfied in whole or in part out of customer property and, to the extent such claim is paid by funds advanced by SIPC, it shall be satisfied in cash or securities, or both, as SIPC, as trustee, determines is most economical to the receivership estate., (c) Decision period. The Corporation as receiver of a covered broker or dealer shall notify a claimant whether it allows or disallows the claim, or any portion of a claim or any claim of a security, preference, set-off, or priority, within the 180-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(A) and any regulations promulgated thereunder (as such 180-day period may be extended by written agreement as provided therein) or within the 90-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(5)(B) and any regulations promulgated thereunder, whichever is applicable. In accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the Corporation, as receiver, shall issue the notice required by this paragraph (c), which shall utilize the determination made by SIPC, as trustee, in a manner consistent with SIPC's customary practices in a liquidation under SIPA, with respect to any claim for net equity or customer name securities. The process established herein for the determination, within the 180-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(A) and any regulations promulgated thereunder (as such 180-day period may be extended by written agreement as provided therein), of claims by customers of a covered broker or dealer for customer property or customer name securities shall constitute the exclusive process for the determination of such claims, and any procedure for expedited relief established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(5) and any regulations promulgated thereunder shall be inapplicable to such claims., (d) Judicial review. The claimant may seek a judicial determination of any claim disallowed, in whole or in part, by the Corporation as receiver, including any claim disallowed based upon any determination(s) of SIPC as trustee made pursuant to § 380.64(a), by the appropriate district or territorial court of the United States in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4) or (5), whichever is applicable, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) After the board of directors approves a merger proposal and receives NCUA's authorization as described in §§ 708a.303 and 708a.304, the credit union must provide written notice of its intent to merge to each member who is eligible to vote on the merger. The notice to members must be mailed 90 calendar days and 30 calendar days before the date of the membership vote on the merger. A ballot must be included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice and only with the 30-day notice. A merging credit union may not distribute ballots with the 90-day notice, in any other written communications, or in person before the 30-day notice is sent., (b)(1) The notice to members must adequately describe the purpose and subject matter of the vote and clearly inform members that they may vote at the special meeting or by submitting the written ballot. The notice must state the date, time, and place of the meeting., (2) The 90-day notice must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot will be mailed together with another notice 30 days before the date of the membership vote on merger. The 30-day notice must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot is included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice materials., (3) For purposes of facilitating the member-to-member contact described in paragraph (f) of this section, the 90-day notice must indicate the number of credit union members eligible to vote on the merger proposal and state how many members have agreed to accept communications from the credit union in electronic form. The 90-day notice must also include the information listed in paragraph (g)(9) of this section., (4) The member ballot must include:, (i) A brief description of the proposal (e.g., “Proposal: Approval of the Plan of Merger by which insert name of credit union will merge with a bank”);, (ii) Two blocks marked respectively as “FOR” and “AGAINST;” and, (iii) The following language: “A vote FOR the proposal means that you want your credit union to merge with and become a bank. A vote AGAINST the proposal means that you want your credit union to remain a credit union.” This language must be displayed in a clear and conspicuous fashion immediately beneath the FOR and AGAINST blocks., (5) The ballot may also include voting instructions and the recommendation of the board of directors (i.e., “Your Board of Directors recommends a vote FOR the Plan of Merger”) but may not include any further information without the prior written approval of the Regional Director., (c) For mergers into stock banks, an adequate description of the purpose and subject matter of the member vote on merger, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must include:, (1) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that if the merger is approved the members will lose all of their ownership interests in the institution, including the right to vote, the right to share in the value of the institution should it be liquidated, the right to share in any extraordinary dividends, and the right to have the net worth of the institution managed in their best interests;, (2) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of any post-merger employment or consulting relationships offered by the bank to any of the credit union's directors and senior management officials and the amount of the associated compensation;, (3) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger of the credit union will affect the members' ability to obtain non-housing-related consumer loans from the bank because of the bank's obligations to satisfy statutory or regulatory lending requirements (if any). This disclosure should specify possible reductions in some kinds of loans to members;, (4) A clear and conspicuous statement of the merger value of the credit union, the total dollar amount the selected bank merger partner has agreed to pay to effect the merger, and the distribution formula the bank will use to determine each member's portion of that payment to be received upon completion of the merger., (d) For mergers into mutual banks, an adequate description of the purpose and subject matter of the member vote on merger, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must include:, (1) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger will affect members' voting rights including whether the bank bases voting rights on account balances;, (2) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that the merger could lead to members losing all of their ownership interests in the credit union if the bank subsequently converts to a stock institution and the members do not purchase stock;, (3) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of any post-merger employment or consulting relationships offered by the bank to the credit union's directors and senior management officials and the associated compensation for each;, (4) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger of the credit union will affect the members' ability to obtain non-housing-related consumer loans from the bank because of the bank's obligations to satisfy statutory or regulatory lending requirements (if any). This disclosure should specify possible reductions in some kinds of loans to members;, (5) A clear and conspicuous statement that, at the time of merger, the bank does or does not intend to convert to a stock institution or a mutual holding company structure;, (6) A clear and conspicuous statement of the merger value of the credit union, the total dollar amount the selected bank merger partner has agreed to pay to effect the merger, and the distribution formula the bank will use to determine each member's portion of that payment to be received upon completion of the merger; and, (7) If the bank plans to add one or more of the credit union's directors to its board or employ one or more senior officials of the credit union, a clear and conspicuous statement that bank could convert to a stock bank in the future and a comparison of the opportunities available to those officials and employees to obtain stock with the opportunities available to the depositors of the bank., (e)(1) A merging credit union must provide the following disclosures in a clear and conspicuous fashion with the 90-day and 30-day notices it sends to its members regarding the merger:, (2) This text must be placed in a box, must be the only text on the front side of a single piece of paper, and must be placed so that the member will see the text after reading the credit union's cover letter but before reading any other part of the member notice. The back side of the paper must be blank. A merging credit union may modify this text only with the prior written consent of the Regional Director and, in the case of a State chartered credit union, the appropriate State regulatory agency., (f) All written communications from a merging credit union to its members regarding the merger must be written in a manner that is simple and easy to understand. Simple and easy to understand means the communications are written in plain language designed to be understood by ordinary consumers and use clear and concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections. For purposes of this part, examples of factors to be considered in determining whether a communication is in plain language and uses clear and concise sentences, paragraphs and sections include the use of short explanatory sentences; use of definite, concrete, everyday words; use of active voice; avoidance of multiple negatives; avoidance of legal and technical business terminology; avoidance of explanations that are imprecise and reasonably subject to different interpretations; and use of language that is not misleading., (g)(1) A merging credit union must mail or e-mail a requesting member's proper merger-related materials to other members eligible to vote if:, (i) A credit union's board of directors has adopted a proposal to merge;, (ii) A member makes a written request that the credit union mail or e-mail materials for the member;, (iii) The request is received by the credit union no later than 35 days after it sends out the 90-day member notice; and, (iv) The requesting member agrees to reimburse the credit union for the reasonable expenses, excluding overhead, of mailing or e-mailing the materials and also provides the credit union with an appropriate advance payment., (2) A member's request must indicate if the member wants the materials mailed or e-mailed. If a member requests that the materials be mailed, the credit union will mail the materials to all eligible voters. If a member requests the materials be e-mailed, the credit union will e-mail the materials to all members who have agreed to accept communications electronically from the credit union. The subject line of the credit union's e-mail will be “Proposed Credit Union Merger - Views of Member (insert member name).”, (3)(i) A merging credit union may, at its option, include the following statement with a member's material:, On (date), the board of directors of (name of merging credit union) adopted a proposal to merge the credit union into a bank. Credit union members who wish to express their opinions about the proposed merger to other members may provide those opinions to (name of credit union). By law, the credit union, at the requesting members' expense, must then send those opinions to the other members. The attached document represents the opinion of a member (or group of members) of this credit union. This opinion is a personal opinion and does not necessarily reflect the views of the management or directors of the credit union., (ii) A merging credit union may not add anything other than this statement to a member's material without the prior approval of the Regional Director., (4) The term “proper merger-related materials” does not include materials that:, (i) Due to size or similar reasons are impracticable to mail or e-mail;, (ii) Are false or misleading with respect to any material fact;, (iii) Omit a material fact necessary to make the statements in the material not false or misleading;, (iv) Relate to a personal claim or a personal grievance, or solicit personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;, (v) Relate to any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause, that is not significantly related to the proposed merger;, (vi) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation impugn a person's character, integrity, or reputation;, (vii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct; or, (viii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make statements impugning the stability and soundness of the credit union., (5) If a merging credit union believes some or all of a member's request is not proper it must submit the member materials to the Regional Director within seven days of receipt. The credit union must include with its transmittal letter a specific statement of why the materials are not proper and a specific recommendation for how the materials should be modified, if possible, to make them proper. The Regional Director will review the communication, communicate with the requesting member, and respond to the credit union within seven days with a determination on the propriety of the materials. The credit union must then mail or e-mail the material to the members if so directed by NCUA., (6) A credit union must ensure that its members receive all materials that meet the requirements of § 708a.305(g) on or before the date the members receive the 30-day notice and associated ballot. If a credit union cannot meet this delivery requirement, it must postpone mailing the 30-day notice until it can deliver the member materials. If a credit union postpones the mailing of the 30-day notice, it must also postpone the special meeting by the same number of days. When the credit union has completed the delivery, it must inform the requesting member that the delivery was completed and provide the number of recipients., (7) The term “appropriate advance payment” means:, (i) For requests to mail materials to all eligible voters, a payment in the amount of 150 percent of the first class postage rate times the number of mailings, and, (ii) For requests to e-mail materials only to members that have agreed to accept electronic communications, a payment in the amount of 200 dollars., (8) If a credit union posts merger-related information or material on its Web site, then it must simultaneously make a portion of its Web site available free of charge to its members to post and share their opinions on the merger. A link to the portion of the Web site available to members to post their views on the merger must be marked “Members: Share your views on the proposed merger and see other members' views” and the link must also be visible on all pages on which the credit union posts its own merger-related information or material, as well as on the credit union's homepage. If a credit union believes a particular member submission is not proper for posting, it will provide that submission to the Regional Director for review as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section. The credit union may also post a content-neutral disclaimer using language similar to the language in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section., (9) A merging credit union must inform members with the 90-day notice that if they wish to provide their opinions about the proposed merger to other members they can submit their opinions in writing to the credit union no later than 35 days from the date of the notice and the credit union will forward those opinions to other members. The 90-day notice will provide a contact at the credit union for delivery of communications, will explain that members must agree to reimburse the credit union's costs of transmitting the communication including providing an advance payment, and will refer members to this section of NCUA's rules for further information about the communication process. The credit union, at its option, may include additional factual information about the communication process with its 90-day notice., (10) A group of members may make a joint request that the credit union send its materials to other members. For purposes of paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section, the credit union will use the group name provided by the group., (h) If it chooses, a credit union may seek a preliminary determination from the Regional Director regarding any of the notices required under this subchapter and its proposed methods and procedures applicable to the membership merger vote. The Regional Director will make a preliminary determination regarding the notices and methods and procedures applicable to the membership vote within 30 calendar days of receipt of a credit union's request for review unless the Regional Director extends the period as necessary to request additional information or review a credit union's submission. A credit union's prior submission of any notice or proposed voting procedures does not relieve the credit union of its obligation to certify the results of the membership vote required by § 708a.307 or eliminate the right of the Regional Director to disapprove the merger if the credit union fails to conduct the membership vote in a fair and legal manner consistent with the Federal Credit Union Act and these rules.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) General. Subject to § 217.400(b)(2), a company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402 must calculate its GSIB surcharge on an annual basis by December 31 of each year. For any given year, subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the GSIB surcharge is equal to the greater of:, (1) The method 1 surcharge calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and, (2) The method 2 surcharge calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section., (b) Method 1 surcharge - (1) General. The method 1 surcharge of a global systemically important BHC is the amount set forth in Table 1 of this section that corresponds to the global systemically important BHC's method 1 score, calculated pursuant to § 217.404.,

Table 1 to § 217.403 - Method 1 Surcharge, (2) Higher method 1 surcharges. To the extent that the method 1 score of a global systemically important BHC equals or exceeds 630 basis points, the method 1 surcharge equals the sum of:, (i) 4.5 percent; and, (ii) An additional 1.0 percent for each 100 basis points that the global systemically important BHC's score exceeds 630 basis points., (c) Method 2 surcharge - (1) General. The method 2 surcharge of a global systemically important BHC is the amount set forth in Table 2 of this section that corresponds to the global systemically important BHC's method 2 score, calculated pursuant to § 217.405.,

Table 2 to § 217.403: Method 2 Surcharge, (2) Higher method 2 surcharges. To the extent that the method 2 score of a global systemically important BHC equals or exceeds 1130 basis points, the method 2 surcharge equals the sum of:, (i) 6.5 percent; and, (ii) An additional 0.5 percent for each 100 basis points that the global systemically important BHC's score exceeds 1130 basis points., (d) Effective date of an adjusted GSIB surcharge - (1) Increase in GSIB surcharge. An increase in the GSIB surcharge of a global systemically important BHC will take effect (i.e., be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to § 217.11) on January 1 of the year that is one full calendar year after the increased GSIB surcharge was calculated., (2) Decrease in GSIB surcharge. A decrease in the GSIB surcharge of a global systemically important BHC will take effect (i.e., be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to § 217.11) on January 1 of the year immediately following the calendar year in which the decreased GSIB surcharge was calculated.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) General rule. Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate, provided that no award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent may exceed $125 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the FDIC pays expert witnesses. An award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses. Fees and expenses awarded under 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) related to defending against an excessive demand shall be paid only as a consequence of appropriations paid in advance., (b) Determination of reasonableness of fees. In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the administrative law judge shall consider the following: , (1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services, or, if he or she is an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services; , (2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services; , (3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; , (4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and , (5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided. , (c) Awards for studies. The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case and not otherwise required by law or sound business or financial practice. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The regulations in this part do not, are not intended to, and should not be construed to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law, in equity, or through administrative proceeding, by any party against FHFA, the United States, its other departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Management of covered positions - (1) Active management. An Enterprise must have clearly defined policies and procedures for actively managing all covered positions. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must require:, (i) Marking covered positions to market or to model on a daily basis;, (ii) Daily assessment of the Enterprise's ability to hedge position and portfolio risks, and of the extent of market liquidity;, (iii) Establishment and daily monitoring of limits on covered positions by a risk control unit independent of the business unit;, (iv) Routine monitoring by senior management of information described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section;, (v) At least annual reassessment of established limits on positions by senior management; and, (vi) At least annual assessments by qualified personnel of the quality of market inputs to the valuation process, the soundness of key assumptions, the reliability of parameter estimation in pricing models, and the stability and accuracy of model calibration under alternative market scenarios., (2) Valuation of covered positions. The Enterprise must have a process for prudent valuation of its covered positions that includes policies and procedures on the valuation of positions, marking positions to market or to model, independent price verification, and valuation adjustments or reserves. The valuation process must consider, as appropriate, unearned credit spreads, close-out costs, early termination costs, investing and funding costs, liquidity, and model risk., (b) Requirements for internal models. (1) A risk control unit independent of the business unit must approve any internal model to calculate its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart., (2) An Enterprise must meet all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis. The Enterprise must promptly notify FHFA when:, (i) The Enterprise plans to extend the use of a model to an additional business line or product type;, (ii) The Enterprise makes any change to an internal model that would result in a material change in the Enterprise's risk-weighted asset amount for a portfolio of covered positions; or, (iii) The Enterprise makes any material change to its modeling assumptions., (3) FHFA may determine an appropriate capital requirement for the covered positions to which a model would apply, if FHFA determines that the model no longer complies with this subpart or fails to reflect accurately the risks of the Enterprise's covered positions., (4) The Enterprise must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its internal models in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance those models as appropriate to ensure that they continue to meet the Enterprise's standards for model approval and employ risk measurement methodologies that are most appropriate for the Enterprise's covered positions., (5) The Enterprise must incorporate its internal models into its risk management process and integrate the internal models used for calculating its market risk measure into its daily risk management process., (6) The level of sophistication of an Enterprise's internal models must be commensurate with the complexity and amount of its covered positions. An Enterprise's internal models may use any of the generally accepted approaches, including variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, to measure market risk., (7) The Enterprise's internal models must properly measure all the material risks in the covered positions to which they are applied., (8) The Enterprise's internal models must conservatively assess the risks arising from less liquid positions and positions with limited price transparency under realistic market scenarios., (9) The Enterprise must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal models to ensure continued applicability and relevance., (c) Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms. (1) The Enterprise must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business units., (2) The Enterprise must validate its internal models initially and on an ongoing basis. The Enterprise's validation process must be independent of the internal models' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:, (i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the internal models;, (ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and the comparison of the Enterprise's model outputs with relevant internal and external data sources or estimation techniques; and, (iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting., (3) The Enterprise must stress test the market risk of its covered positions at a frequency appropriate to each portfolio, and in no case less frequently than quarterly. The stress tests must take into account concentration risk (including concentrations in single issuers, industries, sectors, or markets), illiquidity under stressed market conditions, and risks arising from the Enterprise's trading activities that may not be adequately captured in its internal models., (4) The Enterprise must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Enterprise's market risk measurement systems, including the activities of the business units and independent risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the Enterprise's measures for spread risk under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the Enterprise's board of directors (or a committee thereof)., (d) Internal assessment of capital adequacy. The Enterprise must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its market risk., (e) Documentation. The Enterprise must adequately document all material aspects of its internal models, management and valuation of covered positions, control, oversight, validation and review processes and results, and internal assessment of capital adequacy.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "The Director may, in circumstances considered appropriate, require any regulated entity not subject to this part to conduct stress testing hereunder; and from time to time, issue such guidance and orders as may be necessary to facilitate implementation of this part.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Application of purchases and sales. Any FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that - , (1) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the purchase of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has an open retail forex transaction for the sale of the same currency;, (2) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the sale of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has an open retail forex transaction for the purchase of the same currency;, (3) Purchases a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has a short put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that purchased; or, (4) Sells a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has a long put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that sold shall:, (i) Immediately apply such purchase or sale against such previously held opposite transaction; and, (ii) Promptly furnish such retail forex customer with a statement showing the financial result of the transactions involved and the name of any introducing broker to the account., (b) Close-out against oldest open position. In all instances where the short or long position in a customer's retail forex account immediately prior to an offsetting purchase or sale is greater than the quantity purchased or sold, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall apply such offsetting purchase or sale to the oldest portion of the previously held short or long position., (c) Transactions to be applied as directed by customer. Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the offsetting transaction shall be applied as directed by a retail forex customer's specific instructions. These instructions may not be made by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or an IAP.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Covered IHC long-term debt requirement. A Covered IHC must have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:, (1) 6 percent of the Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;, (2) If the Covered IHC is required to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 2.5 percent of the Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and, (3) 3.5 percent of the Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets., (b) Outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount. (1) A Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount is the sum of:, (i) One hundred (100) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 730 days (two years); and, (ii) Fifty (50) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) and less than 730 days (two years); and, (iii) Zero (0) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in less than 365 days (one year). , (2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the date on which principal is due to be paid on an outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security is calculated from the earlier of:, (i) The date on which payment of principal is required under the terms governing the instrument, without respect to any right of the holder to accelerate payment of principal; and, (ii) The date the holder of the instrument first has the contractual right to request or require payment of the amount of principal, provided that, with respect to a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument only on the occurrence of an event (other than an event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC, or a failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due), the date for the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) will be calculated as if the event has occurred., (3) After notice and response proceedings consistent with 12 CFR part 263, subpart E, the Board may order a Covered IHC to exclude from its outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount any debt security with one or more features that would significantly impair the ability of such debt security to take losses., (c) Redemption and repurchase. Without the prior approval of the Board, a Covered IHC may not redeem or repurchase any outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security if, immediately after the redemption or repurchase, the Covered IHC would not have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is sufficient to meet its Covered IHC long-term debt requirement under paragraph (a) of this section.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Questions have arisen as to the adequacy of statements received by lending banks under § 221.3(c), “Purpose Statement,” in the case of loans to brokers or dealers secured by margin stock where the proceeds of the loans are to be used to finance customer transactions involving the purchasing or carrying of margin stock. While some such loans may qualify for exemption under §§ 221.1(b)(2), 221.4, 221.5 or 221.6, unless they do qualify for such an exemption they are subject to this part. For example, if a loan so secured is made to a broker to furnish cash working capital for the conduct of his brokerage business (i.e., for purchasing and carrying securities for the account of customers), the maximum loan value prescribed in § 221.7 (the Supplement) would be applicable unless the loan should be of a kind exempted under this part. This result would not be affected by the fact that the margin stock given as security for the loan was or included margin stock owned by the brokerage firm. In view of the foregoing, the statement referred to in § 221.3(c) which the lending bank must accept in good faith in determining the purpose of the loan would be inadequate if the form of statement accepted or used by the bank failed to call for answers which would indicate whether or not the loan was of the kind discussed elsewhere in this section.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "A decision by a hearing official shall become the final decision of FHFA for the purpose of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Notice to the public. Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the Board shall make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies., (b) Notice to the Board by accountants and firms. An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to a banking organization must provide the Board with written notice of:, (1) Any currently effective order or other action described in § 263.402(a)(1)(vi) through (a)(1)(vii) or § 263.403(a)(2) through (a)(3); and , (2) Any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)). , (c) Timing of notice. Written notice required by this paragraph shall be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Consolidation of members. Upon the consolidation of two or more institutions that are members of the same Bank into one institution operating under the charter of one of the consolidating institutions, the membership of the surviving institution shall continue and the membership of each disappearing institution shall terminate on the cancellation of its charter. Upon the consolidation of two or more institutions, at least two of which are members of different Banks, into one institution operating under the charter of one of the consolidating institutions, the membership of the surviving institution shall continue and the membership of each disappearing institution shall terminate upon cancellation of its charter, provided, however, that if more than 80 percent of the assets of the consolidated institution are derived from the assets of a disappearing institution, then the consolidated institution shall continue to be a member of the Bank of which that disappearing institution was a member prior to the consolidation, and the membership of the other institutions shall terminate upon the effective date of the consolidation., (b) Consolidation into nonmember - (1) In general. Upon the consolidation of a member into an institution that is not a member of a Bank, where the consolidated institution operates under the charter of the nonmember institution, the membership of the disappearing institution shall terminate upon the cancellation of its charter., (2) Notification. If a member has consolidated into a nonmember that has its principal place of business in a State in the same Bank district as the former member, the consolidated institution shall have 60 calendar days after the cancellation of the charter of the former member within which to notify the Bank of the former member that the consolidated institution intends to apply for membership in such Bank. If the consolidated institution does not so notify the Bank by the end of the period, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by the former member, shall settle all outstanding business transactions with the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29., (3) Application. If such a consolidated institution has notified the appropriate Bank of its intent to apply for membership, the consolidated institution shall submit an application for membership within 60 calendar days of so notifying the Bank. If the consolidated institution does not submit an application for membership by the end of the period, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by the former member, shall settle all outstanding business transactions with the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29., (4) Outstanding indebtedness. If a member has consolidated into a nonmember institution, the Bank need not require the former member or its successor to liquidate any outstanding indebtedness owed to the Bank or to redeem its Bank stock, as otherwise may be required under § 1263.29, during:, (i) The initial 60 calendar-day notification period;, (ii) The 60 calendar-day period following receipt of a notification that the consolidated institution intends to apply for membership; and, (iii) The period of time during which the Bank processes the application for membership., (5) Approval of membership. If the application of such a consolidated institution is approved, the consolidated institution shall become a member of that Bank upon the purchase of the amount of Bank stock necessary, when combined with any Bank stock acquired from the disappearing member, to satisfy the minimum stock purchase requirements established by the Bank's capital structure plan., (6) Disapproval of membership. If the Bank disapproves the application for membership of the consolidated institution, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by, and the settlement of all other outstanding business transactions with, the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29., (c) Dividends on acquired Bank stock. A consolidated institution shall be entitled to receive dividends on the Bank stock that it acquires as a result of a consolidation with a member in accordance with applicable FHFA regulations.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of an award before the final decision on the application for award is made, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying adversary adjudication or after the underlying adversary adjudication has been concluded. If the eligible party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application for award has been filed, the application must be filed with the proposed settlement.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Claimants seeking a review of the determination of claims may seek alternative dispute resolution from the Agency as receiver in lieu of a judicial determination. The Director may by order, policy statement, or directive establish alternative dispute resolution procedures for this purpose.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The prohibitions of § 238.93 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof:, (a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function;, (b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq. and 12 U.S.C. 611 et seq., respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations);, (c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union;, (d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States;, (e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation;, (f) A Federal Home Loan Bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies;, (g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired;, (h)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) with respect to the service of a director of such company who also is a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if:, (i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and, (ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period., (2) The Board may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that:, (i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States;, (ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or, (iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by the Board., (3) The Board may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (h) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period; and, (i) Any savings association or any savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(D) of the Home Owners' Loan Act) which has issued stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance pursuant to section 10(q) of such Act, except that this paragraph (i) shall apply only with regard to service by a single management official of such savings association or holding company, or any subsidiary of such savings association or holding company, by a single management official of the savings and loan holding company which purchased the stock issued in connection with such qualified stock issuance, and shall apply only when the Board has determined that such service is consistent with the purposes of the Interlocks Act and the Home Owners' Loan Act.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) General requirement. A covered entity must ensure that each covered QFC conforms to the requirements of §§ 252.83 and 252.84., (b) Covered entities. For purposes of this subpart, a covered entity is:, (1) A bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402;, (2) A subsidiary of a company identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section other than a subsidiary that is:, (i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;, (ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));, (iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;, (iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662); or, (v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs)); or, (3) A U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization other than a U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency that is:, (i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;, (ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));, (iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;, (iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662);, (v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs);, (vi) A section 2(h)(2) company; or, (vii) A DPC branch subsidiary., (c) Covered QFCs. For purposes of this subpart, a covered QFC is:, (1) With respect to a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:, (i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or, (ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019., (2) With respect to a covered entity that becomes a covered entity after November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:, (i) Enters, executes or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity and January 1, 2019; or, (ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered entity, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) with respect to the covered entity., (d) In-scope QFCs. An in-scope QFC is a QFC that explicitly:, (1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered entity; or, (2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered entity., (e) Rules of construction. For purposes of this subpart:, (1) A covered entity does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and, (2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement., (f) Initial applicability of requirements for covered QFCs. (1) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:, (i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;, (ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or, (iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution., (2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is not a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:, (i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 1 year after the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;, (ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or, (iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 2 years from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Regulation, supervisory, oversight, examination and enforcement authority. FCA has regulatory, supervisory, oversight, examination and enforcement authority over each System institution's equity investment in or control of a UBE and the services and functions that a UBE performs for the System institution. This includes FCA's authority to require a System institution's dissolution of, disassociation from, or divestiture of an equity investment in a UBE, or to otherwise condition the approval of equity investments in UBEs., (b) Assessing UBE investments and business activity. In accordance with section 5.15 of the Act, the cost of regulating and examining System institutions' activities involving UBEs will be taken into account when assessing a System institution for the cost of administering the Act.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) When one loan to a borrower is placed in nonaccrual, an institution must immediately evaluate whether its other loans to that borrower, or related borrowers, should also be placed in nonaccrual. All loans on which a borrowing entity, or a component of a borrowing entity, is primarily obligated to the reporting institution shall be considered as one loan unless a review of all pertinent facts supports a reasonable determination that a particular loan constitutes an independent credit risk and such determination is adequately documented in the loan file. , (1) A loan shall be considered an independent credit risk if a substantial portion of the loan is guaranteed as to principal and interest by a government agency. , (2) Other loans shall be considered independent credit risks if and so long as: , (i) The primary sources of repayment are independent for each loan; , (ii) The loans are not cross-collateralized; and , (iii) The principal obligors are different person(s) and/or entity(ies). Related loans will not be considered independent credit risks if the operations of a related borrower are so financially interdependent with the borrower's operations that the economic survival of one will materially affect the economic survival of the other, determined in accordance with § 614.4359(a)(2) of this chapter. , (b) If the evaluation required by paragraph (a) of this section results in a determination that the borrower's other loans with the institution do not represent an independent credit risk, and full collection of such loans is not expected, then all of the borrower's loans must be aggregated and classified as nonaccrual. If such other loans represent an independent credit risk and are fully collectible, then they may remain in their current performance category. , (c) When an institution becomes aware that a borrower has a loan that has been classified nonaccrual by any other lender, the institution must re-evaluate the credit risk in its loan to the borrower and then determine whether an independent credit risk exists. ", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Board is the party requesting the subpoena. The Board shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the Board.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "A copy of the offering circular, or similar document, if any, used in connection with an offering exempt from the offering circular requirement of § 390.411 by reason of § 390.412(e) or § 390.413 shall be mailed to the FDIC within 30 days after the first sale of such securities. Such copy of the offering circular, or similar document, is solely for the information of the FDIC and shall not be deemed to be “filed” with the FDIC pursuant to § 390.411. The mailing to the FDIC of such offering circular, or similar document, shall not be a pre-condition of the applicable exemption from the offering circular requirements of § 390.411.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) No obligation shall be purchased from or discounted for and no loan shall be made or other similar financial assistance extended by a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank to an OFI if the amount of such obligation added to the aggregate liabilities of such OFI, whether direct or contingent (other than bona fide deposit liabilities), exceeds ten times the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus of such OFI or the amount of such liabilities permitted under the laws of the jurisdiction creating such OFI, whichever is less., (b) It shall be unlawful for any national bank that is indebted to any Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, on paper discounted or purchased, to incur any additional indebtedness, if by virtue of such additional indebtedness its aggregate liabilities, direct or contingent, will exceed the limitation described in paragraph (a) of this section.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "The records referred to in § 792.02 may be relied on, used, or cited as precedent by NCUA against a party, provided:, (a) The materials have been indexed and either made available or published; or, (b) The party has actual and timely notice of the materials' contents.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Filing procedures - (1) Where to file. An application by an insured state branch seeking approval to conduct activities not permissible for a federal branch, as required by § 347.212(a) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office., (2) Content of filing. A complete letter application shall include the following information:, (i) A brief description of the activity, including the manner in which it will be conducted and an estimate of the expected dollar volume associated with the activity; , (ii) An analysis of the impact of the proposed activity on the condition of the United States operations of the foreign bank in general and of the branch in particular, including a copy of the feasibility study, management plan, financial projections, business plan, or similar document concerning the conduct of the activity; , (iii) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors, or evidence of approval by senior management if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, authorizing the filing of the application; , (iv) A statement by the applicant of whether it is in compliance with sections 347.209 and 347.210 of this chapter;, (v) A statement by the applicant that it has complied with all requirements of the Board of Governors concerning applications to conduct the activity in question and the status of each such application, including a copy of the Board of Governors' disposition of such application, if applicable; and , (vi) A statement of why the activity will pose no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. , (3) Board of Governors application. If the application to the Board of Governors contains the information required by paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate letter application. , (4) Additional information. The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing., (b) Divestiture or cessation - (1) Where to file. Divestiture plans necessitated by a change in law or other authority, as required by § 347.212(e) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office., (2) Content of filing. A complete letter application shall include the following information:, (i) A detailed description of the manner in which the applicant proposes to divest itself of or cease the activity in question; and , (ii) A projected timetable describing how long the divestiture or cessation is expected to take. , (3) Additional information. The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Except as otherwise provided in § 794.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) The board of directors of the merging credit union must certify the results of the membership vote to the Regional Director within 14 calendar days after the vote is taken., (b) The certification must also include a statement that the notice, ballot, and other written materials provided to members were identical to those submitted to NCUA pursuant to § 708a.305. If the board cannot certify this, the board must provide copies of any new or revised materials and an explanation of the reasons for any changes., (c) The certification must include copies of any correspondence between the credit union and other regulators related to the pending merger.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) By the Bank. A Bank shall reimburse its AHP fund in the amount of any AHP subsidies (plus interest, if appropriate) not used in compliance with the commitments in an AHP application or the requirements of this part as a result of the actions or omissions of the Bank., (b) By FHFA order. FHFA may order a Bank to reimburse its AHP fund in an appropriate amount upon determining that:, (1) The Bank has failed to reimburse its AHP fund as required under paragraph (a) of this section; or, (2) The Bank has failed to recover the full amount of AHP subsidy due from a project sponsor, project owner, or member pursuant to the requirements of §§ 1291.60 and 1291.61, and has not shown that such failure is reasonably justified, considering factors such as those in § 1291.60(c)(2)(i).", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Disbursement of AHP direct subsidies to members. (1) A Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies under its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs only to institutions that are members of the Bank at the time they request a draw-down of the subsidies., (2) If an institution with an approved application for AHP direct subsidy loses its membership in a Bank, the Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies to a member of such Bank to which the institution has transferred its obligations under the approved AHP application, or the Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies through another Bank to a member of that Bank that has assumed the institution's obligations under the approved AHP application., (b) Reservation of Homeownership Set-Aside Program subsidies. A Bank shall establish and implement policies for reservation of set-aside subsidies for households enrolled in the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Programs. The policies shall provide that set-aside subsidies be reserved no more than two years in advance of the Bank's time limit in its AHP Implementation Plan for draw-down and use of the subsidies by the household and the reservation of subsidies be made from the allocation for the Homeownership Set-Aside Programs for the year in which the Bank makes the reservation., (c) Progress towards use of AHP direct subsidy. A Bank shall establish and implement policies, including time limits, for determining whether progress is being made towards draw-down and use of the AHP direct subsidies by eligible households, and whether to cancel AHP application approvals for lack of such progress. If a Bank cancels any AHP application approvals due to lack of such progress, it shall make the AHP direct subsidies available for other applicants for AHP direct subsidies under the Homeownership Set-Aside Programs or for other AHP-eligible projects.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Covered depository institution means an insured depository institution, as such term is defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813, for which the Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency and that meets all of the following criteria:, (1) Has less than $5 billion in total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of the preceding year;, (2) Has no foreign offices, as defined in this section;, (3) Is not required to or has not elected to use 12 CFR part 324, subpart E, to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;, (4) Is not a large institution or highly complex institution, as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 327.8, or treated as a large institution, as requested under 12 CFR 327.16(f); and, (5) Is not a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank, as such terms are defined in section 3(s) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(s)., (6) In determining whether an insured depository institution meets the asset threshold in paragraph (1) of the definition of “covered depository institution” in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for purposes of a report required to be submitted for calendar year 2021, an insured depository institution may refer to the lesser of its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition as of December 31, 2019, and its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of 2020., (b) Foreign country refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States., (c) Foreign office means:, (1) A branch or consolidated subsidiary in a foreign country, unless the branch is located on a U.S. military facility;, (2) An international banking facility as such term is defined in 12 CFR 204.8;, (3) A majority-owned Edge Act or Agreement subsidiary including both its U.S. and its foreign offices; and, (4) For an institution chartered or headquartered in any U.S. state or the District of Columbia, a branch or consolidated subsidiary located in a U.S. territory or possession., (d) Report of condition means the FFIEC 031, FFIEC 041, or FFIEC 051 versions of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) or the FFIEC 002 (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks), as applicable, and as they may be amended or superseded from time to time in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35., (e) Total consolidated assets means total assets as reported in an insured depository institution's report of condition.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Office of Finance: To perform functions with respect to the issuance of Book-entry consolidated obligations, in accordance with the terms of the applicable offering notice and with procedures established by the Office of Finance; to service and maintain Book-entry consolidated obligations in accounts established for such purposes; to make payments of principal, interest and redemption premium (if any), as directed by the Office of Finance; to effect transfer of Book-entry consolidated obligations between Participants' Securities Accounts as directed by the Participants; and to perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Office of Finance., (b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this part 1270, governing the details of its handling of Book-entry consolidated obligations, Security Entitlements, and the operation of the Book-entry system under this part 1270.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General requirement. Except as provided in §§ 244.5 through 244.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section., (1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent., (2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP., (3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five., (4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction., (b) Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account. In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:, (1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;, (2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and, (3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:, (i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:, (A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or, (B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:, (1) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and, (2) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and, (ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account., (c) Disclosures. A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):, (1) Horizontal interest. With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:, (i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,, (A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest., (B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;, (C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;, (D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor., (E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:, (1) Discount rates;, (2) Loss given default (recovery);, (3) Prepayment rates;, (4) Default rates;, (5) Lag time between default and recovery; and, (6) The basis of forward interest rates used., (F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization., (G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;, (ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:, (A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;, (B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and, (C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences., (iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:, (A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;, (B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and, (C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section., (2) Vertical interest. With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:, (i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,, (A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;, (B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and, (C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction., (ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section., (d) Record maintenance. A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The FDIC shall submit past-due, legally enforceable debt information for tax refund offset to FMS, as prescribed by FMS. For each debt, the FDIC will include the following information: , (a) The name and taxpayer identification number (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 6109) of the debtor; , (b) The amount of the past-due and legally enforceable debt; , (c) The date on which the debt became past-due; and , (d) The designation of FDIC as the agency referring the debt. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General. (1) An originating Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 217.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 217.36 or 217.37, but only as provided in this section., (2) An investing Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 217.36 or 217.37, but only as provided in this section., (b) Mismatches. A Board-regulated institution must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 217.36(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the Board-regulated institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "An applicant seeking payment of an award granted by the NCUA Board shall submit to the NCUA's Office of Chief Financial Officer a copy of the NCUA Board's Final Decision and Order granting the award, accompanied by a statement that it will not seek review of the decision and order in the United States court. All submissions shall be addressed to the Office of Chief Financial Officer, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. The NCUA will pay the amount awarded within 60 days after receiving the applicant's statement, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions will apply:, Affiliate means any entity established under authority granted to the Corporation under section 8.3(c)(14) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended., Asset-backed securities (ABS) mean investment securities that provide for ownership of a fractional undivided interest or collateral interests in specific assets of a trust that are sold and traded in the capital markets. For the purpose of this subpart, ABS exclude mortgage-backed securities that are defined below., Cash means cash balances held at Federal Reserve Banks, proceeds from traded-but-not-yet-settled debt, and deposit accounts at Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation-insured banks., Diversified investment fund (DIF) means an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940., Farmer Mac, Corporation, you, and your means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates., FCA, our, us, or we means the Farm Credit Administration., Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE) means an entity established or chartered by the United States Government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government., Long-Term Standby Purchase Commitment (LTSPC) is a commitment by Farmer Mac to purchase specified eligible loans on one or more undetermined future dates. In consideration for Farmer Mac's assumption of the credit risk on the specified loans underlying an LTSPC, Farmer Mac receives an annual commitment fee on the outstanding balance of those loans in monthly installments based on the outstanding balance of those loans., Market risk means the risk to your financial condition because the value of your holdings may decline if interest rates or market prices change. Exposure to market risk is measured by assessing the effect of changing rates and prices on either the earnings or economic value of an individual instrument, a portfolio, or the entire Corporation., Maturing obligations means maturing debt and other obligations that may be expected, such as buyouts of long-term standby purchase commitments or repurchases of agricultural mortgage securities., Mortgage-backed securities (MBS) means securities that are either:, (1) Pass-through securities or participation certificates that represent ownership of a fractional undivided interest in a specified pool of residential (excluding home equity loans), multifamily or commercial mortgages, or, (2) A multiclass security (including collateralized mortgage obligations and real estate mortgage investment conduits) that is backed by a pool of residential, multifamily or commercial real estate mortgages, pass through MBS, or other multiclass MBS., (3) This definition does not include agricultural mortgage-backed securities guaranteed by Farmer Mac itself., Non-program investments means investments other than those in:, (1) “Qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended; or, (2) Securities collateralized by “qualified loans.”, OSMO means FCA's Office of Secondary Market Oversight., Program assets means on-balance sheet “qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended., Program obligations means off-balance sheet “qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended., Regulatory capital means your core capital plus an allowance for losses and guarantee claims, as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles., U.S. Government agency means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Available approaches. (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 217.152(b)(3)(i), a Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alternative modified look-through approach in paragraph (d) of this section., (2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 217.152(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value., (3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the Board-regulated institution does not use the full look-through approach, the Board-regulated institution may use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 217.152(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value., (b) Full look-through approach. A Board-regulated institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart E of this part as if the proportional ownership share of each exposure were held directly by the Board-regulated institution) may either:, (1) Set the risk-weighted asset amount of the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:, (i) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the Board-regulated institution; and, (ii) The Board-regulated institution's proportional ownership share of the fund; or, (2) Include the Board-regulated institution's proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the fund in the Board-regulated institution's IMA., (c) Simple modified look-through approach. Under this approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight assigned according to subpart D of this part that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under its prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures)., (d) Alternative modified look-through approach. Under this approach, a Board-regulated institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories assigned according to subpart D of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure class multiplied by the applicable risk weight. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest risk weight under subpart D of this part, and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest risk weight under subpart D of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the Board-regulated institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. A Board-regulated institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "This subpart implements the provisions of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, section 7(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) (CBCA), and sets forth the filing requirements and processing procedures for a notice of change in control with respect to the acquisition of control of a State nonmember bank, a State savings association, or certain parent companies of either a State nonmember bank or a State savings association.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Any credit union insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) must receive approval from the NCUA before purchasing loans or assuming an assignment of deposits, shares, or liabilities from:, (1) Any credit union that is not insured by the NCUSIF;, (2) Any other financial-type institution (including depository institutions, mortgage banks, consumer finance companies, insurance companies, loan brokers, and other loan sellers or liability traders); or, (3) Any successor in interest to any institution identified in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section., (b) Approval is not required for:, (1) Purchases of student loans or real estate secured loans to facilitate the packaging of a pool of loans to be sold or pledged on the secondary market under § 701.23(b)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this chapter or comparable state law for state-chartered credit unions, or purchases of member loans under § 701.23(b)(1)(i) of this chapter or comparable state law for state-chartered credit unions;, (2) Assumption of deposits, shares or liabilities as rollovers or transfers of member retirement accounts or in which a federally insured credit union perfects a security interest in connection with an extension of credit to any member., (3) Purchases of assets, including loans, or assumptions of deposits, shares, or liabilities by any credit union insured by the NCUSIF from another credit union insured by the NCUSIF, except a purchase or assumption as a part of a merger under part 708b; or, (4) Purchases of loan participations as defined in and meeting the requirements of § 701.22 of this chapter. , (c) A credit union seeking approval under paragraph (a) of this section must submit a request for approval to the appropriate regional director. The request must state the nature of the transaction and include copies of all relevant transaction documents. The regional director will approve or disapprove the request as soon as possible depending on the complexity of the proposed transaction. Credit unions should submit a request for approval in sufficient time to close the transaction.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "An Enterprise Security may be maintained in the form of a Definitive Enterprise Security or a Book-entry Enterprise Security. A Book-entry Enterprise Security shall be maintained in the Book-entry System.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 1467; 1467a, 1818, 5361, 5365., (b) Purpose. This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "When used with respect to the Third Party Brokerage Arrangements (“Networking”) Exception from the definition of the term “broker” in section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i)) in the context of transactions with a customer, the following terms shall have the meaning provided:, (a) Contingent on whether the referral results in a transaction means dependent on whether the referral results in a purchase or sale of a security; whether an account is opened with a broker or dealer; whether the referral results in a transaction involving a particular type of security; or whether it results in multiple securities transactions; provided, however, that a referral fee may be contingent on whether a customer:, (1) Contacts or keeps an appointment with a broker or dealer as a result of the referral; or, (2) Meets any objective, base-line qualification criteria established by the bank or broker or dealer for customer referrals, including such criteria as minimum assets, net worth, income, or marginal federal or state income tax rate, or any requirement for citizenship or residency that the broker or dealer, or the bank, may have established generally for referrals for securities brokerage accounts., (b)(1) Incentive compensation means compensation that is intended to encourage a bank employee to refer customers to a broker or dealer or give a bank employee an interest in the success of a securities transaction at a broker or dealer. The term does not include compensation paid by a bank under a bonus or similar plan that is:, (i) Paid on a discretionary basis; and, (ii) Based on multiple factors or variables and:, (A) Those factors or variables include multiple significant factors or variables that are not related to securities transactions at the broker or dealer;, (B) A referral made by the employee is not a factor or variable in determining the employee's compensation under the plan; and, (C) The employee's compensation under the plan is not determined by reference to referrals made by any other person., (2) Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall be construed to prevent a bank from compensating an officer, director or employee under a bonus or similar plan on the basis of any measure of the overall profitability or revenue of:, (i) The bank, either on a stand-alone or consolidated basis;, (ii) Any affiliate of the bank (other than a broker or dealer), or any operating unit of the bank or an affiliate (other than a broker or dealer), if the affiliate or operating unit does not over time predominately engage in the business of making referrals to a broker or dealer; or, (iii) A broker or dealer if:, (A) Such measure of overall profitability or revenue is only one of multiple factors or variables used to determine the compensation of the officer, director or employee;, (B) The factors or variables used to determine the compensation of the officer, director or employee include multiple significant factors or variables that are not related to the profitability or revenue of the broker or dealer;, (C) A referral made by the employee is not a factor or variable in determining the employee's compensation under the plan; and, (D) The employee's compensation under the plan is not determined by reference to referrals made by any other person., (c) Nominal one-time cash fee of a fixed dollar amount means a cash payment for a referral, to a bank employee who was personally involved in referring the customer to the broker or dealer, in an amount that meets any of the following standards:, (1) The payment does not exceed:, (i) Twice the average of the minimum and maximum hourly wage established by the bank for the current or prior year for the job family that includes the employee; or, (ii) 1/1000th of the average of the minimum and maximum annual base salary established by the bank for the current or prior year for the job family that includes the employee; or, (2) The payment does not exceed twice the employee's actual base hourly wage or 1/1000th of the employee's actual annual base salary; or, (3) The payment does not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25), as adjusted in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section., (d) Job family means a group of jobs or positions involving similar responsibilities, or requiring similar skills, education or training, that a bank, or a separate unit, branch or department of a bank, has established and uses in the ordinary course of its business to distinguish among its employees for purposes of hiring, promotion, and compensation., (e) Referral means the action taken by one or more bank employees to direct a customer of the bank to a broker or dealer for the purchase or sale of securities for the customer's account., (f) Inflation adjustment - (1) In general. On April 1, 2012, and on the 1st day of each subsequent 5-year period, the dollar amount referred to in paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall be adjusted by:, (i) Dividing the annual value of the Employment Cost Index For Wages and Salaries, Private Industry Workers (or any successor index thereto), as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, for the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the adjustment is being made by the annual value of such index (or successor) for the calendar year ending December 31, 2006; and, (ii) Multiplying the dollar amount by the quotient obtained in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section., (2) Rounding. If the adjusted dollar amount determined under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for any period is not a multiple of $1, the amount so determined shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $1.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Reports to the Board of stress test results. A covered company must report the results of the stress test required under § 238.143 to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board. Such results must be submitted by April 5 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to § 238.143, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing., (b) Confidential treatment of information submitted. The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Unless otherwise indicated, terms used in this part have the meanings that they have in 12 CFR part 1201 and in the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.)., Core business line means a business line of the Enterprise that plausibly would continue to operate in a limited-life regulated entity, considering the purposes, mission, and authorized activities of the Enterprise as set forth in its authorizing statute and the Safety and Soundness Act. Core business line includes associated operations, services, functions, and supports necessary for any identified core business line to be continued, such as servicing, credit enhancement, securitization support, information technology support and operations, and human resources and personnel., Credible, with regard to a resolution plan, means a resolution plan that:, (1) Demonstrates consideration of required and prohibited assumptions set forth at § 1242.5(b);, (2) Provides strategic analysis and detailed information as required by § 1242.5(c) through (g) that is well-founded and based on information and data related to the Enterprise that are observable or otherwise verifiable and employ reasonable projections from current and historical conditions within the broader financial markets; and, (3) Plausibly achieves the purposes of § 1242.1(a)., Material change means an event, occurrence, change in conditions or circumstances, or other change that results in, or could reasonably be foreseen to have, a material effect on:, (1) The resolvability of the Enterprise;, (2) The Enterprise's resolution strategy; or, (3) How the Enterprise's resolution plan is implemented. Material changes may include the identification of a new core business line or significant increases or decreases in business, operations, funding, or interconnections., Rapid and orderly resolution means a process for establishing a limited-life regulated entity as successor to the Enterprise under section 1367 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C 4617), including transferring Enterprise assets and liabilities to the limited-life regulated entity, such that succession by the limited-life regulated entity can be accomplished promptly and in a manner that substantially mitigates the risk that the failure of the Enterprise would have serious adverse effects on national housing finance markets.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "A person who files a false claim or makes a false or fraudulent statement in a claim against the United States may be liable to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment of not more than 5 years, or both (18 U.S.C. 287-1001), and, in addition, to a forfeiture of $2,000 and a penalty of double the loss or damage sustained by the United States (31 U.S.C. 231). ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Each Farm Credit institution shall adopt policies and procedures that are designed to assure that the elections of board members are conducted in an impartial manner., (b) No employee or agent of a Farm Credit institution shall take any part, directly or indirectly, in the nomination or election of members to the board of directors of a Farm Credit institution, or make any statement, either orally or in writing, which may be construed as intended to influence any vote in such nominations, or elections. This paragraph shall not prohibit employees or agents from providing biographical and other similar information or engaging in other activities pursuant to policies and procedures for nominations and elections. This paragraph does not affect the right of an employee or agent to nominate or vote for stockholder-elected directors of an institution in which the employee or agent is a voting member. , (c) No property, facilities, or resources, including information technology and human or financial resources, of any Farm Credit institution shall be used by any candidate for nomination or election or by any other person for the benefit of any candidate for nomination or election, unless the same property, facilities, or resources are simultaneously available and made known to be available for use by all declared candidates, including floor nominees. For the limited purpose of Farm Credit bank board elections, each Farm Credit bank may allow its stockholder-associations to use stockholder-association property, facilities, or resources in support of bank director candidates. Any Farm Credit bank permitting this activity by its stockholder-associations must have a policy in place approved by its board of directors establishing reasonable standards that stockholder-associations must follow, and those standards must give appropriate consideration to the various sizes of stockholder-associations within a bank's district and include a maximum amount that a stockholder-association may expend in support of a bank director candidate., (d) No director, employee, or agent of a Farm Credit institution shall, for the purpose of furthering the interests of any candidates for nomination or election, furnish or make use of records that are not made available for use by all declared candidates., (e) No Farm Credit institution may in any way distribute or mail, whether at the expense of the institution or another, any campaign materials for director candidates. Institutions may request biographical information, as well as the disclosure information required under § 611.330, from all declared candidates who certify that they are eligible, restate such information in a standard format, and distribute or mail it with ballots or proxy ballots., (f) No director of a Farm Credit institution shall, in his or her capacity as a director, make any statement, either orally or in writing, which may be construed as intending to influence any vote in that institution's director nominations or elections. This paragraph shall not prohibit director candidates from engaging in campaign activities on their own behalf.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "Agricultural credit banks are those banks created by the merger of a Farm Credit Bank and a bank for cooperatives pursuant to section 7.0 of the Act.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) The purpose of this part is to set forth standards and criteria for the process an Enterprise must establish to validate and approve any credit score model that produces any credit score that the Enterprise requires in its mortgage purchase procedures and systems., (b) The validation and approval process for a credit score model includes the following phases: Solicitation of Applications, Submission of Applications and Initial Review, Credit Score Assessment, and Enterprise Business Assessment.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Submission of comments. For filings subject to a public notice requirement, any person may submit comments to the appropriate FDIC regional director during the comment period., (b) Comment period - (1) General. Consult appropriate subparts of this part for the comment period applicable to a particular filing., (2) Extension. The FDIC may extend or reopen the comment period if:, (i) The applicant fails to file all required information on a timely basis to permit review by the public or makes a request for confidential treatment not granted by the FDIC that delays the public availability of that information;, (ii) Any person requesting an extension of time satisfactorily demonstrates to the FDIC that additional time is necessary to develop factual information that the FDIC determines may materially affect the application; or , (iii) The FDIC determines that other good cause exists., (3) Solicitation of comments. Whenever appropriate, the appropriate regional director may solicit comments from any person or institution which might have an interest in or be affected by the pending filing., (4) Applicant response. The FDIC will provide copies of all comments received to the applicant and may give the applicant an opportunity to respond.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "In the sole discretion of the Board's General Counsel, the General Counsel may, prior to the issuance by the Board of a notice of assessment of civil penalty, advise the affected person that the issuance of a notice of assessment of civil penalty is being considered and the reasons and authority for the proposed assessment. The General Counsel may provide the person an opportunity to present written materials or request a conference with members of the Board's staff to show that the penalty should not be assessed or, if assessed, should be reduced in amount.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under section 12(f) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:, U.S. person means:, (i) Any of the following:, (A) Any natural person resident in the United States;, (B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;, (C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);, (D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);, (E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;, (F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);, (G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and, (H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:, (1) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and, (2) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and, (ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:, (A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;, (B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:, (1) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and, (2) The estate is governed by foreign law;, (C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);, (D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;, (E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:, (1) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and, (2) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;, (F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans., (b) In general. This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:, (1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a et seq.);, (2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;, (3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:, (i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;, (ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or, (iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and, (4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:, (i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or, (ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State., (c) Evasions prohibited. In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The terms in this part have the same meaning as in FHFA's Minority and Women Inclusion Regulation at part 1223 of this chapter, as may be amended from time to time.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Except as otherwise specifically provided in this subpart, the following provisions shall apply to proceedings conducted under this subpart:, (a)(1) Power of attorney and notice of appearance. Any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the NCUA Board or Presiding Officer designated by the NCUA Board upon filing with the NCUA Board a written declaration that he or she is currently qualified as provided by this paragraph, and is authorized to represent the particular party on whose behalf he acts. Any other person desiring to appear before or transact business with the NCUA Board in a representative capacity may be required to file with the NCUA Board a power of attorney showing his or her authority to act in such capacity, and he or she may be required to show to the satisfaction of the NCUA Board that he or she has the requisite qualifications. Attorneys and representatives of parties to proceedings shall file a written notice of appearance with the NCUA Board or with the Presiding Officer designated by the NCUA Board., (2) Summary suspension. Contemptuous conduct by any person at an argument before the NCUA Board or at the hearing before a Presiding Officer shall be grounds for exclusion therefrom and suspension for the duration of the argument or hearing., (b)(1) Notice of hearing. Whenever a hearing within the scope of this subpart is ordered by the NCUA Board, a notice of hearing shall be given by the NCUA Board to the party afforded the hearing and to any appropriate state supervisory authority. The notice shall state the time, place, and nature of the hearing and the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held, and shall contain a statement of the matters of fact or law constituting the grounds for the hearing. It shall be delivered by personal service, by registered or certified mail to the last known address, or by other appropriate means, not later than 30 nor earlier than 60 days before the hearing., (2) Party. The term “party” means a person or agency named or admitted as a party, or any person or agency who has filed a written request and is entitled as of right to be admitted as a party; but a person or agency may be admitted for a limited purpose., (c)(1) Computation of time. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act, event or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day so computed shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday in the District of Columbia, in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor such legal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall be included in the computation unless the time within which the act is to be performed is ten days or less in which event Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall not be included., (2) Service by mail. Whenever any party has the right or is required to do some act or take some proceeding, within a period of time prescribed in this subpart, after the service upon him of any document or other paper of any kind, and such service is made by mail, three days shall be added to the prescribed period from the date when the matter served is deposited in the U.S. mail., (d) Nonpublication of submissions. Unless and until otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, the notice of hearing, the transcript, written materials submitted during the hearing, the Presiding Officer's recommendation to the NCUA Board and any other papers filed in connection with a hearing under this subpart, shall not be made public, and shall be for the confidential use only of the NCUA Board, the Presiding Officer, the parties and appropriate authorities., (e) Remainder of board of directors. (1) If at any time, because of the suspension of one or more directors pursuant to this subpart, there shall be on the board of directors of an insured credit union less than a quorum of directors not so suspended, all powers and functions vested in or exercisable by such board shall vest in and be exercisable by the director or directors on the board not so suspended, until such time as there shall be a quorum on the board of directors., (2) In the event all of the directors of an insured credit union are suspended pursuant to this subpart, the NCUA Board shall appoint persons to serve temporarily as directors in their place pending the termination of such suspensions, or until such time as those who have been suspended cease to be directors of the credit union and their respective successors have been elected by the members at an annual or special meeting and have taken office., (3) Directors appointed temporarily by the NCUA Board pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, shall, within 30 days following their appointment, call a special meeting for the election of new directors, unless during such 30-day period - , (i) The regular annual meeting is convened; or, (ii) The suspensions giving rise to the appointment of temporary directors are terminated.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) The NCUA is required by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 note)), to adjust the maximum amount of each civil monetary penalty (CMP) within its jurisdiction by the rate of inflation. The following chart displays those adjusted amounts, as calculated pursuant to the statute:, (b) The adjusted amounts displayed in paragraph (a) of this section apply to civil monetary penalties that are assessed after the date the increase takes effect, including those whose associated violation or violations pre-dated the increase and occurred on or after November 2, 2015.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General. An originating FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its securitization exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria in § 324.141 may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section. An investing FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section., (b) Collateral - (1) Rules of recognition. An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize financial collateral in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure (other than a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, or an OTC derivative contract for which the FDIC-supervised institution has reflected collateral in its determination of exposure amount under § 324.132) as follows. The FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the collateralized securitization exposure is equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as calculated under the SSFA in § 324.144 or under the SFA in § 324.143 multiplied by the ratio of adjusted exposure amount (SE*) to original exposure amount (SE), where:, (i) SE* equals max {0, SE − C × (1− Hs − Hfx)};, (ii) SE equals the amount of the securitization exposure calculated under § 324.142(e);, (iii) C equals the current fair value of the collateral;, (iv) Hs equals the haircut appropriate to the collateral type; and, (v) Hfx equals the haircut appropriate for any currency mismatch between the collateral and the exposure., (3) Standard supervisory haircuts. Unless an FDIC-supervised institution qualifies for use of and uses own-estimates haircuts in paragraph (b)(4) of this section:, (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the collateral type haircuts (Hs) in Table 1 to § 324.132 of this subpart;, (ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must use a currency mismatch haircut (Hfx) of 8 percent if the exposure and the collateral are denominated in different currencies;, (iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the supervisory haircuts obtained in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 6.5 (which equals 2.549510); and, (iv) An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than 65 business days where and as appropriate to take into account the illiquidity of the collateral., (4) Own estimates for haircuts. With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts using its own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility, subject to § 324.132(b)(2)(iii). The minimum holding period (TM) for securitization exposures is 65 business days., (c) Guarantees and credit derivatives - (1) Limitations on recognition. An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure., (2) ECL for securitization exposures. When an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must also:, (i) Calculate ECL for the protected portion of the exposure using the same risk parameters that it uses for calculating the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and, (ii) Add the exposure's ECL to the FDIC-supervised institution's total ECL., (3) Rules of recognition. An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as follows:, (i) Full coverage. If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative equals or exceeds the amount of the securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 324.131), using the FDIC-supervised institution's PD for the guarantor, the FDIC-supervised institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the amount of the securitization exposure (as determined in § 324.142(e))., (ii) Partial coverage. If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative is less than the amount of the securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the sum of:, (A) Covered portion. The risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 324.131), using the FDIC-supervised institution's PD for the guarantor, the FDIC-supervised institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the protection amount of the credit risk mitigant; and, (B) Uncovered portion. (1) 1.0 minus the ratio of the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative to the amount of the securitization exposure); multiplied by, (2) The risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure without the credit risk mitigant (as determined in §§ 324.142 through 324.146)., (4) Mismatches. The FDIC-supervised institution must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 324.134(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure and any more senior securitization exposure that benefits from the hedge. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all the hedged exposures.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "The term tax and loan account means an account, the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, established for receipt of payments of Federal taxes and certain United States obligations. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Actions by the Director. The Director shall carry out this section by taking, at any time, one or more of the following actions with respect to a significantly undercapitalized Bank:, (1) Limit the increase in any obligations or class of obligations of the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;, (2) Reduce the amount of any obligations or class of obligations held by the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;, (3) Limit the increase in, or prohibit the growth of any asset or class of assets held by the Bank. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current assets or in any other form chosen by the Director;, (4) Reduce the amount of any asset or class of asset held by the Bank. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;, (5) Acquire new capital in the form and amount determined by the Director, which specifically may include requiring a Bank to increase its level of retained earnings;, (6) Modify, limit or terminate any activity of the Bank that the Director determines creates excessive risk;, (7) Take steps to improve the management at the Bank by:, (i) Ordering a new election for the Bank's board of directors in accordance with procedures established by the Director;, (ii) Dismissing particular directors or executive officers, in accordance with section 1366(b)(5)(B) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4616(b)(5)(B)), who held office for more than 180 days immediately prior to the date on which the Bank became undercapitalized, provided further that such dismissals shall not be considered removal pursuant to an enforcement action under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a) and shall not be subject to the requirements necessary to remove an officer or director under that section; or, (iii) Ordering the Bank to hire qualified executive officers, the hiring of whom, prior to employment by the Bank and at of the option of the Director, may be subject to review and approval by the Director; or, (8)(i) Reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank as critically undercapitalized if:, (A) The Bank does not submit a capital restoration plan that is substantially in compliance with § 1229.11 of this part and within the time frame required;, (B) The Director does not approve the capital restoration plan submitted by the Bank; or, (C) The Director determines that the Bank has failed to make reasonable, good faith efforts to comply with its approved capital restoration plan and fulfill any schedule established by that plan., (ii) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the Director may reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section at any time the grounds for such action exist, notwithstanding the fact that such grounds had formed the basis on which the Director reclassified a Bank from undercapitalized to significantly undercapitalized., (b) Additional safeguards. The Director may require a significantly undercapitalized Bank to take any other action not specifically listed in this section if the Director determines such action will help ensure the safe and sound operation of the Bank and the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time more than any action specifically authorized under paragraph (a) of this section., (c) Procedures. Before finalizing any action under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action or actions and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's decision to take such action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Senior Examiners of State Member Banks. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a state member bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year after leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from - , (1) The state member bank; or, (2) Any company (including a bank holding company) that controls the state member bank., (b) Senior Examiners of Bank Holding Companies. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a bank holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from - , (1) The bank holding company; or, (2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the bank holding company., (c) Senior Examiners of Foreign Banks. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a foreign bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from - , (1) The foreign bank; or, (2) Any branch or agency of the foreign bank located in the United States; or, (3) Any other depository institution controlled by the foreign bank., (d) Senior Examiners of Savings and Loan Holding Companies. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a savings and loan holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from - , (1) The savings and loan holding company; or, (2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the savings and loan holding company. ", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Filing exceptions. Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 308.38, a party may file with the Administrative Officer written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. , (b) Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions. (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto. , (2) No exception need be considered by the Board of Directors if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so. , (c) Contents. (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception. , (2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision as soon as practicable, but not later than sixty (60) days after the date on which the request for such hearing was received by the FDIC. If the FDIC is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and decision within sixty (60) days after the receipt of the request for such hearing: , (a) The FDIC may not issue a withholding order until the hearing is held and a decision rendered; or , (b) If the FDIC had previously issued a withholding order to the debtor's employer, the withholding order will be suspended beginning on the 61st day after the date the FDIC received the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, the FDIC shall assess interest, penalties and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States. The FDIC is authorized to assess interest and related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Eligibility, number and term - (1) Eligibility. No candidate for an outside director position may be a director, officer, employee, agent, or stockholder of an institution in the Farm Credit System. Farm Credit banks and associations must make a reasonable effort to select outside directors possessing some or all of the desired director qualifications identified pursuant to § 611.210(a) of this part., (2) Number. Stockholder-elected directors must constitute at least 60 percent of the members of each institution's board., (i) Each Farm Credit bank must have at least two outside directors., (ii) Associations with total assets exceeding $500 million as of January 1 of each year must have no fewer than two outside directors on the board. However, this requirement does not apply if it causes the percent of stockholder-elected directors to be less than 75 percent of the board., (iii) Associations with $500 million or less in total assets as of January 1 of each year must have at least one outside director., (3) Terms of office. Banks and associations may not establish a different term of office for outside directors than that established for stockholder-elected directors., (b) Removal. Each institution must establish and maintain procedures for removal of outside directors. When the removal of an outside director is sought before the expiration of the outside director's term, the reason for removal must be documented. An institution's director removal procedures must allow for removal of an outside director by a majority vote of all voting stockholders voting, in person or by proxy, or by a two-thirds majority vote of the full board of directors. The outside director subject to the removal action is prohibited from voting in his or her own removal action.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) General. The Board shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. This paragraph (a) does not: , (1) Necessarily require the Board to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability; or , (2) Require the Board to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where the Board believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Board has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alterations or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alterations or burdens shall be made by the Board of Governors or their designee after considering all Board resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Board shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with a disability receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. , (b) Methods. The Board may comply with the requirements of this subpart H through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to individuals with a disability, home visits, delivery of service at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. The Board is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Board shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with a disability in the most integrated setting appropriate. , (c) Time period for compliance. The Board shall comply with any obligations established under this section as expeditiously as possible. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Conversion - (1) Generally. A mutual holding company may convert to the stock form in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in subpart E of this part., (2) Exchange of subsidiary savings association or subsidiary holding company stock. Any stock issued by a subsidiary savings association, or by a subsidiary holding company pursuant to § 239.24, of a mutual holding company to persons other than the parent mutual holding company may be exchanged for the stock issued by the successor to parent mutual holding company in connection with the conversion of the parent mutual holding company to stock form. The parent mutual holding company and the subsidiary holding company must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the basis for the exchange is fair and reasonable., (3) If a subsidiary holding company or subsidiary savings association has issued shares to an entity other than the mutual holding company, the conversion of the mutual holding company to stock form may not be consummated unless a majority of the shares issued to entities other than the mutual holding company vote in favor of the conversion. This requirement applies in addition to any otherwise required account holder or shareholder votes., (b) Involuntary liquidation. (1) The Board may file a petition with the federal bankruptcy courts requesting the liquidation of a mutual holding company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)(9) and title 11, United States Code, upon the occurrence of any of the following events:, (i) The default of the resulting association, any acquiree association, or any subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company that was in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company;, (ii) The default of the parent mutual holding company or its subsidiary holding company; or, (iii) Foreclosure on any pledge by the mutual holding company of subsidiary savings association stock or subsidiary holding company stock., (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the net proceeds of any liquidation of any mutual holding company shall be transferred to the members of the mutual holding company and, if applicable, the stock holders of the subsidiary holding company in accordance with the charter of the mutual holding company and, if applicable, the charter of the subsidiary holding company., (3) If the FDIC incurs a loss as a result of the default of any subsidiary savings association of a mutual holding company and that mutual holding company is liquidated pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the FDIC shall succeed to the membership interests of the depositors of such savings association in the mutual holding company to the extent of the FDIC's loss., (c) Voluntary liquidation. The provisions of § 239.16 shall apply to mutual holding companies.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) A decision to close any portion of a meeting and to withhold information about any portion of a meeting closed pursuant to § 791.12(a) will be taken only when a majority of the entire Board votes to take such action. In deciding whether to close a meeting or any portion of a meeting or to withhold information, the Board shall independently consider whether the public interest requires an open meeting. A separate vote of the Board will be taken and recorded for each portion of a meeting to be closed to public observation pursuant to § 791.12(a) or to withhold information from the public pursuant to § 791.12(a). A single vote may be taken and recorded with respect to a series of meetings, or any portions of meetings which are proposed to be closed to the public, or with respect to any information concerning the series of meetings, so long as each meeting in the series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series. No proxies shall be allowed. , (b) Any person whose interests may be directly affected by any portion of a meeting for any of the reasons stated in § 791.12(a) (5), (6) or (7) may request that the Board close such portion of the meeting. After receiving notice of a person's desire for any specified portion of a meeting to be closed, the Board, upon a request by one member, will decide by recorded vote whether to close the relevant portion or portions of the meeting. This procedure applies to requests received either prior or subsequent to the announcement of a decision to hold an open meeting. , (c) Within one day after any vote is taken pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the Board shall make publicly available a written copy of the vote taken indicating the vote of each Board member. Except to the extent that such information is withheld and exempt from disclosure, for each meeting or any portion of a meeting closed to the public, the Board shall make publicly available within one day after the required vote, a written explanation of its action, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the closed meeting and their affiliation. The list of persons to attend need not include the names of individual staff, but shall state the offices of the agency expected to participate in the meeting discussions. ", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "§§ 324.171 through 324.173 establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements of an FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Upon receipt of a request for hearing which complies with § 747.403(b), the NCUA Board shall transmit the request to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”). Such hearing shall commence no earlier than 30 days nor later than 60 days after the date the OFIA receives the request for a hearing, unless an earlier or later date is requested by the Federal credit union concerned and is granted by the NCUA Board in its discretion. , (b) Except as provided in § 747.405(b), the procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) and subpart A of this part will apply to the hearing., (c) Unless the Federal credit union shall appear at such hearing by a duly authorized representative it shall be deemed to have consented to the suspension or revocation of its charter and to the placing of said credit union into involuntary liquidation. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "In this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: , (a) Agency means: , (1) An executive agency as defined by 5 U.S.C. 105, including the United States Postal Service and the United States Postal Rate Commission; , (2) A military department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; , (3) An agency or court of the judicial branch, including a court as defined in 28 U.S.C. 610, the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multi-district Litigation; , (4) An agency of the legislative branch, including the United States Senate and the United States House of Representatives; or , (5) Other independent establishments that are entities of the Federal Government. , (b) Disposable pay means, for an officially established pay interval, that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or, in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay, remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. The FCA shall allow the deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105 (b) through (f). , (c) Employee means a current employee of the FCA or other agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States. , (d) Waiver means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or nonrecovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to the FCA or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "This section applies only to loan participations as defined in paragraph (a) of this section. It does not apply to the purchase of an investment interest in a pool of loans. This section establishes the requirements a federally insured credit union must satisfy to purchase a participation in a loan. This section applies only to a federally insured credit union's purchase of a loan participation where the borrower is not a member of that credit union and where a continuing contractual obligation between the seller and purchaser is contemplated. Generally, a federal credit union's purchase of all or part of a loan made to one of its own members, subject to a limited exception for certain well capitalized federal credit unions in § 701.23(b)(2), where no continuing contractual obligation between the seller and purchaser is contemplated, is governed by § 701.23 of this part. Federally insured state-chartered credit unions are required by § 741.225 of this chapter to comply with the loan participation requirements of this section. This section does not apply to corporate credit unions, as that term is defined in § 704.2 of this chapter., (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:, Associated borrower means any other person or entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower. This means any person or entity named as a borrower or debtor in a loan or extension of credit, or any other person or entity, such as a drawer, endorser, or guarantor, engaged in a common enterprise with the borrower, or deriving a direct benefit from the loan to the borrower. Exceptions to this definition for partnerships, joint ventures and associations are as follows:, (1) If the borrower is a partnership, joint venture or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is a member or partner of the borrower, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower., (2) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is the partnership, joint venture, or association and the borrower is a limited partner of that other entity, and by the terms of a partnership or membership agreement valid under applicable law, the borrower is not held generally liable for the debts or actions of that other entity, such other entity is not an associated borrower., (3) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is another member or partner of the partnership, joint venture, or association, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower., Common enterprise means:, (1) The expected source of repayment for each loan or extension of credit is the same for each borrower and no individual borrower has another source of income from which the loan (together with the borrower's other obligations) may be fully repaid. An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment because of wages and salaries paid to an employee, unless the standards described in paragraph (2) are met;, (2) Loans or extensions of credit are made:, (i) To borrowers who are related directly or indirectly through common control, including where one borrower is directly or indirectly controlled by another borrower; and, (ii) Substantial financial interdependence exists between or among the borrowers. Substantial financial interdependence means 50 percent or more of one borrower's gross receipts or gross expenditures (on an annual basis) are derived from transactions with another borrower. Gross receipts and expenditures include gross revenues or expenses, intercompany loans, dividends, capital contributions, and similar receipts or payments; or, (3) Separate borrowers obtain loans or extensions of credit to acquire a business enterprise of which those borrowers will own more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests., Control means a person or entity directly or indirectly, or acting through or together with one or more persons or entities:, (1) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another person or entity;, (2) Controls, in any manner, the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of another person or entity; or, (3) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of another person or entity. , Credit union means any federal or state-chartered credit union., Credit union organization means any credit union service organization meeting the requirements of part 712 of this chapter. This term does not include trade associations or membership organizations principally composed of credit unions., Direct benefit means the proceeds of a loan or extension of credit to a borrower, or assets purchased with those proceeds, that are transferred to another person or entity, other than in a bona fide arm's-length transaction where the proceeds are used to acquire property, goods, or services. , Eligible organization means a credit union, credit union organization, or financial organization., Financial organization means any federally chartered or federally insured financial institution; and any state or federal government agency and its subdivisions., Loan participation means a loan where one or more eligible organizations participate pursuant to a written agreement with the originating lender, and the written agreement requires the originating lender's continuing participation throughout the life of the loan., Originating lender means the participant with which the borrower initially or originally contracts for a loan and who, thereafter or concurrently with the funding of the loan, sells participations to other lenders., (b) A federally insured credit union may purchase a participation interest in a loan from an eligible organization only if the loan is one the purchasing credit union is empowered to grant and the following additional conditions are satisfied:, (1) The purchase complies with all regulatory requirements to the same extent as if the purchasing federally insured credit union had originated the loan, including, for example, the loans-to-one-borrower provisions in § 701.21(c)(5) of this part for federal credit unions and § 723.4 of the member business loans rule in part 723 of this chapter for all federally insured credit unions;, (2) The purchasing federally insured credit union has executed a written loan participation agreement with the originating lender and the agreement meets the minimum requirements for a loan participation agreement as described in paragraph (d) of this section;, (3) The originating lender retains an interest in each participated loan. If the originating lender is a federal credit union, the retained interest must be at least 10 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan. If the originating lender is any other type of eligible organization, the retained interest must be at least 5 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan, unless a higher percentage is required under applicable state law;, (4) The borrower becomes a member of one of the participating credit unions before the purchasing federally insured credit union purchases a participation interest in the loan; and, (5) The purchase complies with the purchasing federally insured credit union's internal written loan participation policy, which, at a minimum, must:, (i) Establish underwriting standards for loan participations;, (ii) Establish a limit on the aggregate amount of loan participations that may be purchased from any one originating lender, not to exceed the greater of $5,000,000 or 100 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth, unless this amount is waived by the appropriate regional director, and, in the case of a federally insured state-chartered credit union, with prior written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority;, (iii) Establish limits on the amount of loan participations that may be purchased by each loan type, not to exceed a specified percentage of the federally insured credit union's net worth; and, (iv) Establish a limit on the aggregate amount of loan participations that may be purchased with respect to a single borrower, or group of associated borrowers, not to exceed 15 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth, unless waived by the appropriate regional director, and, in the case of a federally insured state-chartered credit union, with prior written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority., (c) To seek a waiver from any of the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, a federally insured credit union must submit a written request to its regional director with a full and detailed explanation of why it is requesting the waiver. Within 45 calendar days of receipt of a completed waiver request, including all necessary supporting documentation and, if appropriate, any written concurrence, the regional director will provide the federally insured credit union a written response. The regional director's decision will be based on safety and soundness and other considerations; however, the regional director will not grant a waiver to a federally insured State-chartered credit union without the prior written concurrence of the appropriate State supervisory authority. A federally insured credit union may request the regional director to reconsider a denied waiver request and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter., (d) A loan participation agreement must:, (1) Be properly executed by authorized representatives of all parties under applicable law;, (2) Be properly authorized by the federally insured credit union's board of directors or, if the board has so delegated in its policy, a designated committee or senior management official, under the federally insured credit union's bylaws and all applicable law;, (3) Be retained in the federally insured credit union's office (original or copies); and, (4) Include provisions which, at a minimum, address the following:, (i) Prior to purchase, the identification of the specific loan participation(s) being purchased, either directly in the agreement or through a document which is incorporated by reference into the agreement;, (ii) The interest that the originating lender will retain in the loan to be participated. If the originating lender is a federal credit union, the retained interest must be at least 10 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan. If the originating lender is any other type of eligible organization, the retained interest must be at least 5 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan, unless a higher percentage is required under state law;, (iii) The location and custodian for original loan documents;, (iv) An explanation of the conditions under which parties to the agreement can gain access to financial and other performance information about a loan, the borrower, and the servicer so the parties can monitor the loan;, (v) An explanation of the duties and responsibilities of the originating lender, servicer, and participants with respect to all aspects of the participation, including servicing, default, foreclosure, collection, and other matters involving the ongoing administration of the loan; and, (vi) Circumstances and conditions under which participants may replace the servicer., (e) Temporary regulatory relief in response to COVID-19. Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, during the period commencing on April 21, 2020 and concluding on December 31, 2022, the aggregate amount of loan participations that may be purchased from any one originating lender shall not exceed the greater of $5,000,000 or 200 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) General. If the Director determines that an Enterprise did not comply with, or there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will not comply with, the duty to serve a particular underserved market in a given year, the Director may require the Enterprise to submit a housing plan for approval by the Director., (b) Nature of housing plan. If the Director requires a housing plan, the housing plan must:, (1) Be feasible;, (2) Be sufficiently specific to enable the Director to monitor compliance periodically;, (3) Describe the specific actions that the Enterprise will take:, (i) To comply with the duty to serve a particular underserved market for the next calendar year; or, (ii) To make such improvements and changes in its operations as are reasonable in the remainder of the year, if the Director determines that there is a substantial probability that the Enterprise will fail to comply with the duty to serve a particular underserved market in such year; and, (4) Address any additional matters relevant to the housing plan as required, in writing, by the Director., (c) Deadline for submission. The Enterprise must submit the housing plan to the Director within 45 days after issuance of a notice requiring the Enterprise to submit a housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline for submission of a housing plan, in writing and for a time certain, to the extent the Director determines an extension is necessary., (d) Review of housing plans. The Director will review and approve or disapprove housing plans in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 4566(c)(4) and (c)(5)., (e) Resubmission. If the Director disapproves an initial housing plan submitted by an Enterprise, the Enterprise must submit an amended housing plan acceptable to the Director not later than 15 days after the Director's disapproval of the initial housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline if the Director determines that an extension is in the public interest. If the amended housing plan is not acceptable to the Director, the Director may afford the Enterprise 15 days to submit a new housing plan.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling must be by motion. Motions must state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and must be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties. Motions may include, without limitation, motions for summary judgment. , (b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions must be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing. , (c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or any other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion. , (d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response. , (e) The ALJ will make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) The requirements of § 238.11(a), (b), (d), (e) and (f) do not apply to:, (1) Control of a savings association acquired by devise under the terms of a will creating a trust which is excluded from the definition of savings and loan holding company;, (2) Control of a savings association acquired in connection with a reorganization that involves solely the acquisition of control of that association by a newly formed company that is controlled by the same acquirors that controlled the savings association for the immediately preceding three years, and entails no other transactions, such as an assumption of the acquirors' debt by the newly formed company: Provided, that the acquirors have filed the designated form with the appropriate Reserve Bank and have provided all additional information requested by the Board or Reserve Bank, and the Board nor the appropriate Reserve Bank object to the acquisition within 30 days of the filing date;, (3) Control of a savings association acquired by a bank holding company that is registered under and subject to, the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, or any company controlled by such bank holding company;, (4) Control of a savings association acquired solely as a result of a pledge or hypothecation of stock to secure a loan contracted for in good faith or the liquidation of a loan contracted for in good faith, in either case where such loan was made in the ordinary course of the business of the lender: Provided, further, That acquisition of control pursuant to such pledge, hypothecation or liquidation is reported to the Board within 30 days, and Provided, further, That the acquiror shall not retain such control for more than one year from the date on which such control was acquired; however, the Board may, upon application by an acquiror, extend such one-year period from year to year, for an additional period of time not exceeding three years, if the Board finds such extension is warranted and would not be detrimental to the public interest;, (5) Control of a savings association acquired through a percentage increase in stock ownership following a pro rata stock dividend or stock split, if the proportional interests of the recipients remain substantially the same;, (6) Acquisitions of up to twenty-five percent (25%) of a class of stock by a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan; and, (7) Acquisitions of up to 15 percent of the voting stock of any savings association by a savings and loan holding company (other than a bank holding company) in connection with a qualified stock issuance if such acquisition is approved by the Board pursuant to subpart E., (b) The requirements of § 238.11(c) do not apply to voting shares of a savings association or of a savings and loan holding company - , (1) Held as a bona fide fiduciary (whether with or without the sole discretion to vote such shares);, (2) Held temporarily pursuant to an underwriting commitment in the normal course of an underwriting business;, (3) Held in an account solely for trading purposes or over which no control is held other than control of voting rights acquired in the normal course of a proxy solicitation;, (4) Acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, for two years after the date of acquisition or for such additional time (not exceeding three years) as the Board may permit if, in the Board's judgment, such an extension would not be detrimental to the public interest;, (5) Acquired under section 13(k)(1)(A)(i) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (or section 408(m) of the National Housing Act as in effect immediately prior to the enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989);, (6) Held by any insurance companies as defined in section 2(a)(17) of the Investment Company Act of 1940: Provided, That all shares held by all insurance company affiliates of such savings association or savings and loan holding company may not, in the aggregate, exceed five percent of all outstanding shares or of the voting power of the savings association or savings and loan holding company, and such shares are not acquired or retained with a view to acquiring, exercising, or transferring control of the savings association or savings and loan holding company; and, (7) Acquired pursuant to a qualified stock issuance if such a purchase is approved pursuant to subpart E of this part., (c) The aggregate amount of shares held under paragraph (b) of this section (other than pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) and (b)(6)) may not exceed 15 percent of all outstanding shares or the voting power of a savings association or savings and loan holding company., (d) Acquisitions involving savings association mergers and internal corporate reorganizations. The requirements of § 238.11 do not apply to:, (1) Certain transactions subject to the Bank Merger Act. The acquisition by a savings and loan holding company of shares of a savings association or company controlling a savings association or the merger of a company controlling a savings association with the savings and loan holding company, if the transaction is part of the merger or consolidation of the savings association with a subsidiary savings association (other than a nonoperating subsidiary savings association) of the acquiring savings and loan holding company, or is part of the purchase of substantially all of the assets of the savings association by a subsidiary savings association (other than a nonoperating subsidiary savings association) of the acquiring savings and loan holding company, and if:, (i) The savings association merger, consolidation, or asset purchase occurs simultaneously with the acquisition of the shares of the savings association or savings and loan holding company or the merger of holding companies, and the savings association is not operated by the acquiring savings and loan holding company as a separate entity other than as the survivor of the merger, consolidation, or asset purchase;, (ii) The transaction requires the prior approval of a federal supervisory agency under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));, (iii) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of any company that would require prior notice or approval under section 10(c) of the HOLA;, (iv) The transaction does not involve a depository institution organized in mutual form, a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, a subsidiary holding company of a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, or a bank holding company organized in mutual form;, (v) The transaction will not have a material adverse impact on the financial condition of the acquiring savings and loan holding company;, (vi) At least 10 days prior to the transaction, the acquiring savings and loan holding company has provided to the Reserve Bank written notice of the transaction that contains:, (A) A copy of the filing made to the appropriate federal banking agency under the Bank Merger Act; and, (B) A description of the holding company's involvement in the transaction, the purchase price, and the source of funding for the purchase price; and, (vii) Prior to expiration of the period provided in paragraph (d)(1)(vi) of this section, neither the Board nor the Reserve Bank has informed the savings and loan holding company that an application under § 238.11 is required., (2) Internal corporate reorganizations. (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, any of the following transactions performed in the United States by a savings and loan holding company:, (A) The merger of holding companies that are subsidiaries of the savings and loan holding company;, (B) The formation of a subsidiary holding company; 1, 1 In the case of a transaction that results in the formation or designation of a new savings and loan holding company, the new savings and loan holding company must complete the registration requirements described in section 238.11., (C) The transfer of control or ownership of a subsidiary savings association or a subsidiary holding company between one subsidiary holding company and another subsidiary holding company or the savings and loan holding company., (ii) A transaction described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section qualifies for this exception if - , (A) The transaction represents solely a corporate reorganization involving companies and insured depository institutions that, both preceding and following the transaction, are lawfully controlled and operated by the savings and loan holding company;, (B) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of additional voting shares of an insured depository institution that, prior to the transaction, was less than majority owned by the savings and loan holding company;, (C) The transaction does not involve a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, a subsidiary holding company of a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, or a bank holding company organized in mutual form; and, (D) The transaction will not have a material adverse impact on the financial condition of the holding company.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Since the Board and the Committee qualifies for the use of expedited procedures under subsection (d)(4) of the Act, meetings or portions thereof exempt under paragraph (a)(4), (a)(8), (a)(9)(i) or (a)(10) of § 261b.5 of this part, will be closed to public observation under the expedited procedures of this section. Following are examples of types of items that, absent compelling contrary circumstances, will qualify for these exemptions: Matters relating to a specific bank or bank holding company, such as bank branches or mergers, bank holding company formations, or acquisition of an additional bank or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible nonbanking activity; matters relating to a specific savings and loan holding company or its subsidiaries, such as acquisitions, reorganizations, savings and loan holding company formations, conversions, or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible activity; bank regulatory matters, such as applications for membership, issuance of capital notes and investment in bank premises; foreign banking matters; bank supervisory and enforcement matters, such as cease-and-desist and officer removal proceedings; monetary policy matters, such as discount rates, use of the discount window, changes in the limitations on payment of interest on time and savings accounts, and changes in reserve requirements or margin regulations., (b) At the beginning of each meeting, a portion or portions of which is closed to public observation under expedited procedures pursuant to this section, a recorded vote of the members present will be taken to determine whether a majority of the members of the agency votes to close such meeting of portions of such meeting to public observation. , (c) A copy of the vote, reflecting the vote of each member, and except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5, a public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting or each closed portion thereof, will be made available at the earliest practicable time at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Collection of margin. A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:, (1) Zero; or, (2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap less the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable., (b) Posting of margin. A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty., (c) Timing. A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires., (d) Other counterparties. A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 237.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Mandatory provisions. Each of the provisions mandatory for all stock issuance plans under this paragraph (a) shall be deemed regulatory requirements. Each Stock Issuance Plan shall contain a complete description of all significant terms of the proposed stock issuance (including the information specified in § 239.65(f) to the extent known), shall attach and incorporate the proposed form of stock certificate, the proposed stock order form, and any agreements or other documents defining the rights of the stockholders, and shall:, (1) Provide that the stock shall be sold at a total price equal to the estimated pro forma market value of such stock, based upon an independent valuation;, (2) Provide that the aggregate amount of outstanding common stock of the subsidiary holding company owned or controlled by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance shall be less than fifty percent of the subsidiary holding company's total outstanding common stock (This provision may be omitted if the proposed issuance will be conducted by a subsidiary holding company that was in the stock form when acquired by its mutual holding company parent);, (3) Provide that all employee stock ownership plans or other tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans (collectively, ESOPs) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;, (4) Provide that all ESOPs and management recognition plans (MRPs) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance. However, if the subsidiary holding company's tangible capital equals at least ten percent at the time of implementation of the plan, the Board may permit such ESOPs and MRPs to encompass, in the aggregate, up to 5.88 percent of the outstanding common stock or stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;, (5) Provide that all MRPs must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 1.47 percent of the common stock of the subsidiary holding company or 1.47 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance. However, if the subsidiary holding company's tangible capital is at least ten percent at the time of implementation of the plan, the Board may permit MRPs to encompass, in the aggregate, up to 1.96 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 1.96 percent of the savings subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;, (6) Provide that all stock option plans (Option Plans) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's outstanding common stock at the close of the proposed issuance or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;, (7) Provide that an ESOP, a MRP or an Option Plan modified or adopted no earlier than one year after the close of: the proposed issuance, or any subsequent issuance that is made in substantial conformity with the purchase priorities § 239.59(a) set forth in subpart E of this part, may exceed the percentage limitations contained in paragraphs (a)(3) through (6) of this section (plan expansion), subject to the following two requirements. First, all common stock awarded in connection with any plan expansion must be acquired for such awards in the secondary market. Second, such acquisitions must begin no earlier than when such plan expansion is permitted to be made;, (8)(i) Provide that the aggregate amount of common stock that may be encompassed under all Option Plans and MRPs, or acquired by all insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association and associates of insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association, must not exceed the following percentages of common stock or stockholders' equity of the subsidiary holding company, held by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance:, (ii) The percentage limitations contained in paragraph 8(i) of this section may be exceeded provided that all stock acquired by insiders and associates of insiders or awarded under all MRPs and Option Plans in excess of those limitations is acquired in the secondary market. If acquired for such awards on the secondary market, such acquisitions must begin no earlier than one year after the close of the proposed issuance or any subsequent issuance that is made in substantial conformity with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part., (iii) In calculating the number of shares held by insiders and their associates under this provision, shares awarded but not delivered under an ESOP, MRP, or Option Plan that are attributable to such persons shall not be counted as being acquired by such persons., (9) Provide that the amount of common stock that may be encompassed under all Option Plans and MRPs must not exceed, in the aggregate, 25 percent of the outstanding common stock held by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance;, (10) Provide that the issuance shall be conducted in compliance with, to the extent applicable, the forms required by the Board;, (11) Provide that the sales price of the shares of stock to be sold in the issuance shall be a uniform price determined in accordance with § 239.24;, (12) Provide that, if at the close of the stock issuance the subsidiary holding company has more than thirty-five shareholders of any class of stock, the subsidiary holding company shall promptly register that class of stock pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78a-78jj), and undertake not to deregister such stock for a period of three years thereafter;, (13) Provide that, if at the close of the stock issuance the subsidiary holding company has more than one hundred shareholders of any class of stock, the subsidiary holding company shall use its best efforts to:, (i) Encourage and assist a market maker to establish and maintain a market for that class of stock; and, (ii) List that class of stock on a national or regional securities exchange or on the NASDAQ quotation system;, (14) Provide that, for a period of three years following the proposed issuance, no insider of the subsidiary holding company or his or her associates shall purchase, without the prior written approval of the Board, any stock of the subsidiary holding company except from a broker dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, except that the foregoing restriction shall not apply to:, (i) Negotiated transactions involving more than one percent of the outstanding stock in the class of stock; or, (ii) Purchases of stock made by and held by any tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the subsidiary holding company even if such stock is attributable to insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association or their associates;, (15) Provide that stock purchased by insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association and their associates in the proposed issuance shall not be sold for a period of at least one year following the date of purchase, except in the case of death of the insider or associate;, (16) Provide that, in connection with stock subject to restriction on sale for a period of time:, (i) Each certificate for such stock shall bear a legend giving appropriate notice of such restriction;, (ii) Appropriate instructions shall be issued to the subsidiary holding company's transfer agent with respect to applicable restrictions on transfer of such stock; and, (iii) Any shares issued as a stock dividend, stock split, or otherwise with respect to any such restricted stock shall be subject to the same restrictions as apply to the restricted stock;, (17) Provide that the subsidiary holding company will not offer or sell any of the stock proposed to be issued to any person whose purchase would be financed by funds loaned, directly or indirectly, to the person by the subsidiary holding company;, (18) Provide that, if necessary, the subsidiary holding company's charter will be amended to authorize issuance of the stock and attach and incorporate by reference the text of any such amendment;, (19) Provide that the expenses incurred in connection with the issuance shall be reasonable;, (20) Provide that the Stock Issuance Plan, if proposed as part of a Reorganization Plan, may be amended or terminated in the same manner as the Reorganization Plan. Otherwise, the Stock Issuance Plan shall provide that it may be substantively amended by the board of directors of the issuing subsidiary holding company as a result of comments from regulatory authorities or otherwise prior to approval of the Plan by the Board, and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board; and that the Stock Issuance Plan may be terminated by the board of directors at any time prior to approval of the Plan by the Board, and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board;, (21) Provide that, unless an extension is granted by the Board, the Stock Issuance Plan shall be terminated if not completed within 90 days of the date of such approval; or, (22) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may make scheduled discretionary contributions to a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan provided such contributions do not cause the subsidiary holding company to fail to meet any of its regulatory capital requirements., (b) Optional provisions. A Stock Issuance Plan may:, (1) Provide that, in the event the proposed stock issuance is part of a Reorganization Plan, the stock offering may be commenced concurrently with or at any time after the mailing to the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association of any proxy statement(s). The offering may be closed before the required membership vote(s), provided the offer and sale of the stock shall be conditioned upon the approval of the Reorganization Plan and Stock Issuance Plan by the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association;, (2) Provide that any insignificant residue of stock of the subsidiary holding company not sold in the offering may be sold in such other manner as provided in the Stock Issuance Plan, with the Board's approval;, (3) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may issue and sell, in lieu of shares of its stock, units of securities consisting of stock and long-term warrants or other equity securities, in which event any reference in the provisions of this section and in § 239.24 to stock shall apply to such units of equity securities unless the context otherwise requires; or, (4) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may reserve shares representing up to ten percent of the proposed offering for issuance in connection with an employee stock benefit plan., (c) Applicability of provisions of § 239.63(a)(1) to minority stock issuances. Notwithstanding § 239.24(d), § 239.63(a)(1)(ii) do not apply to minority stock issuances, because the permissible sizes of ESOPs, MRPs, and Option Plans in minority stock issuances are subject to each of the requirements set forth at paragraphs (a)(3) through (a)(9) of this section. Section 239.63(a)(4) through (a)(14), apply for one year after the subsidiary holding company engages in a minority stock issuance that is conducted in accordance with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part. In addition to the shareholder vote requirement for Option Plans and MRPs set forth at § 239.63(a)(1)(vi), any Option Plans and MRPs put to a shareholder vote after a minority stock issuance that is conducted in accordance with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part must be approved by a majority of the votes cast by stockholders other than the mutual holding company.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "For purposes of this subpart and subpart C:, (a) The average assessment rate for any assessment period means the aggregate assessment charged all insured depository institutions for that period divided by the aggregate assessment base for that period., (b) Board means the Board of Directors of the FDIC., (c) De facto rule means any transaction in which an insured depository institution assumes substantially all of the deposit liabilities and acquires substantially all of the assets of any other insured depository institution at the time of the transaction., (d) An eligible insured depository institution:, (1) Means an insured depository institution that:, (i) Was in existence on December 31, 1996, and paid a deposit insurance assessment before December 31, 1996; or, (ii) Is a successor to an insured depository institution referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section; and, (2) does not include an institution if its insured status has terminated as of or after the effective date of this regulation., (e) Merger means any transaction in which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution. Notwithstanding part 303, subpart D, for purposes of this subpart B and subpart C of this part, merger does not include transactions in which an insured depository institution either directly or indirectly acquires the assets of, or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, any other insured depository institution, but there is not a legal merger or consolidation of the two insured depository institutions., (f) Resulting institution refers to the acquiring, assuming, or resulting institution in a merger., (g) Successor means a resulting institution or an insured depository institution that acquired part of another insured depository institution's 1996 assessment base ratio under paragraph 327.33(c) of this subpart under the de facto rule.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Each Enterprise shall take the results of the stress test conducted under § 1238.3 into account in making changes, as appropriate, to the Enterprise's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); its exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; any plans for recovery and resolution; and to improve overall risk management. If an Enterprise is under FHFA conservatorship, any post-assessment actions shall require prior FHFA approval.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Applicants. Except where otherwise provided, a non-federally-insured credit union applying to become a member of a Bank shall be treated as an insured depository institution for purposes of determining its eligibility for membership under this part, provided that all of the following requirements have been met:, (1) Notice. Upon receiving from a non-federally-insured credit union an application for membership, a Bank shall promptly notify the applicant in writing that its application will not be deemed complete or be acted upon by the Bank until the applicant has, in addition to satisfying all other generally applicable requirements, complied with paragraph (a)(2) of this section and subsequently provided one of the items listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section., (2) Request to regulator. After receiving the notice required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a non-federally-insured credit union applicant shall send to its appropriate State regulator a written request for a determination that the applicant met all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request. The applicant shall provide to the Bank a copy of that request simultaneously with its transmittal to the regulator., (3) Completion of application. A Bank may deem the application of a non-federally-insured credit union to be complete and may act upon the application, as provided under § 1263.3(c), only if it has received from the applicant one of the following items:, (i) A written statement from the applicant's appropriate State regulator that the applicant met all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section;, (ii) A written statement from the applicant's appropriate State regulator that it cannot or will not make a determination regarding the applicant's eligibility for Federal share insurance; or, (iii) A written statement from the applicant, prepared no earlier than the end of the six-month period beginning on the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, certifying that the applicant did not receive from its appropriate State regulator within that six-month period either a response as described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section or a response stating that the applicant did not meet all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section., (b) Members canceling Federal share insurance. A Bank member that is a federally insured credit union and that subsequently cancels its Federal share insurance may remain a member of the Bank, subject to all regulatory provisions applicable to insured depository institution members, provided that the Bank has determined that the institution has canceled its Federal share insurance voluntarily.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Requirements. No subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company may issue stock to persons other than its mutual holding company parent in connection with a mutual holding company reorganization, or at any time subsequent to the subsidiary holding company's acquisition by the mutual holding company, unless the subsidiary holding company obtains advance approval of each such issuance from the Board. Approval of a mutual holding company reorganization filed pursuant to § 239.3(a) shall be deemed to constitute approval of any stock issuance specifically applied for pursuant to this section in connection with the reorganization, unless otherwise specified by the Board. The Board shall approve any proposed issuance that meets each of the criteria set forth below in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section., (1) The proposed issuance is to be made pursuant to a Stock Issuance Plan that contains all the provisions required by § 239.25., (2) The Stock Issuance Plan is consistent with the terms of the subsidiary holding company's charter (or any proposed amendments thereto), including terms governing the type and amount of stock that may be issued., (3) The Stock Issuance Plan would provide the subsidiary holding company, its mutual holding company parent, and any subsidiary savings associations of the subsidiary holding company with fully sufficient capital and would not be inequitable or detrimental to the subsidiary holding company or its mutual holding company parent or to members of the mutual holding company parent., (4) The proposed price or price range of the stock to be issued is reasonable. The Board shall review the reasonableness of the proposed price or price range., (5) The aggregate amount of outstanding common stock of the subsidiary holding company owned or controlled by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance shall be less than 50 percent of the subsidiary holding company's total outstanding common stock, unless the subsidiary holding company was a stock holding company when acquired by the mutual holding company, in which case the foregoing restriction shall not apply. Any amount of preferred stock may be issued by any subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company to persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company, consistent with any other applicable laws and regulations., (6) The subsidiary holding company furnishes the information required by the Board in connection with the proposed issuance., (7) The proposed stock issuance meets the convenience and needs standard of § 239.55(g)., (8) The proposed issuance complies with all other applicable laws and regulations., (9) Unless otherwise determined by the Board, the limitations on the minimum and maximum amounts of the estimated price range required by § 239.59(c) shall apply., (b) Related approvals. Approval by the Board of any stock issuance pursuant to this section shall also be deemed to constitute:, (1) Approval of the form of stock certificate proposed to be utilized in connection with the stock issuance, provided such form was included in the application materials filed pursuant to this section; and, (2) Approval of any charter or bylaw amendment required to authorize issuance of the stock, provided such amendment was proposed in the application materials filed pursuant to this section., (c) Offering restrictions. (1) No representations may be made in any manner in connection with the offer or sale of any stock issued pursuant to this section that the price, price range or any other pricing information related to such stock issuance has been approved by the Board or that the stock has been approved or disapproved by the Board or that the Board has endorsed the accuracy or adequacy of any securities offering documents disseminated in connection with such stock., (2) The sale of minority stock of the subsidiary holding company to be made under the minority stock issuance plan, including any sale in a public offering or direct community marketing, shall be completed as promptly as possible and within 45 calendar days after the last day of the subscription period, unless extended by the Board., (3) In the offer, sale, or purchase of stock issued pursuant to this section, no person shall:, (i) Employ any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud;, (ii) Make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made, in the light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading; or, (iii) Engage in any act, practice, or course of business which operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon a purchaser or seller., (4) Prior to the completion of a stock issuance pursuant to this section, no person shall transfer, or enter into any agreement or understanding to transfer, the legal or beneficial ownership of the stock to be issued to any other person., (5) Prior to the completion of a stock issuance pursuant to this section, no person shall make any offer, or any announcement of any offer, to purchase any stock to be issued, or knowingly acquire any stock in the issuance, in excess of the maximum purchase limitations established in the Stock Issuance Plan., (6) All stock issuances pursuant to this section must:, (i) Comply with § 239.59 and, to the extent applicable, the form or forms specified by the Board; and, (ii) Provide that the offering be structured in a manner similar to a standard conversion under subpart E of this part, including the stock purchase priorities accorded members of the issuing subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company, unless the subsidiary holding company would qualify for a supervisory conversion if it were to undertake a conversion under subpart E of this part; or demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that a non-conforming issuance would be more beneficial to the savings association and subsidiary holding company compared to a conforming offering, considering, in the aggregate, the effect of each on the savings association and subsidiary holding company's financial and managerial resources and future prospects, the effect of the issuance upon the savings association and subsidiary holding company, the insurance risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund, and the convenience and needs of the community to be served., (7) Notwithstanding the restrictions in paragraph (c)(6)(ii) of this section, a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company may issue stock as part of a stock benefit plan to any insider, associate of an insider, or tax qualified or non-tax qualified employee stock benefit plan of the mutual holding company or subsidiary of the mutual holding company without including the purchase priorities of subpart E of this part., (8) As part of a reorganization, a reasonable amount of shares or proceeds may be contributed to a charitable organization that complies with §§ 239.64(b) to 239.64(f), provided such contribution does not result in any taxes on excess business holdings under section 4943 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 4943)., (d) Procedural and substantive requirements. The procedural and substantive requirements of subpart E of this part shall apply to all mutual holding company stock issuances and subsidiary holding company stock issuances under this section, unless clearly inapplicable, as determined by the Board. For purposes of this paragraph, the term conversion as it appears in the provisions of subpart E of this part shall refer to the stock issuance, and the term mutual holding company shall refer to the subsidiary holding company undertaking the stock issuance.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "The Director may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of any act that could be done or ordered by the presiding officer.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Determination and notice. After the Enterprise has submitted its response under § 1777.25 or the response period (as extended or shortened, if applicable) has expired, whichever occurs first, OFHEO will determine, in its discretion, whether to take into consideration such relevant information as is provided by the Enterprise in its response, if any, under § 1777.25. OFHEO will provide the Enterprise with a written final notice of any order issued by OFHEO under this subpart, which is to include a description of the basis for OFHEO's determination., (b) Termination or modification. An Enterprise that has received an order under paragraph (a) of this section remains subject to each provision of the order until each such provision terminates under the express terms of the order. The Enterprise may submit a written request to OFHEO seeking modification or termination of one or more provisions of the order. Pending OFHEO's review and approval, in OFHEO's discretion of the Enterprise's request, the Enterprise shall remain subject to the provisions of the order., (c) Enforcement of order - (1) Judicial enforcement. An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section is an order for purposes of section 1375 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4635). An Enterprise in any capital classification may be subject to enforcement of such order in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia pursuant to such section., (2) Administrative enforcement. An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section constitutes an order under the 1992 Act. An Enterprise, regardless of its capital classification, as well as its executive officers and directors may be subject to action by OFHEO under sections 1371, 1372, and 1376 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, and 4636) and 12 CFR part 1780 for failure to comply with such order.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Debarment. If the final order against the respondent is for debarment, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board unless otherwise permitted to do so by the Board pursuant to § 263.99 of this subpart., (b) Suspension. If the final order against the respondent is for suspension, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board during the period of suspension., (c) Censure. If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before the Board, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in the Board's files., (d) Notice of debarment or suspension. Upon the issuance of a final order for suspension or debarment, the Board shall give notice of the order to appropriate officers and employees of the Board, to interested departments and agencies of the Federal Government, and to the appropriate authorities of the State in which any debarred or suspended individual is or was licensed to practice.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "It is the policy of the FDIC that minorities and women, and businesses owned by them have the maximum practicable opportunity to participate in contracts awarded by the FDIC. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Savings and loan holding company policy and operations. (1) A savings and loan holding company shall serve as a source of financial and managerial strength to its subsidiary savings associations and shall not conduct its operations in an unsafe or unsound manner., (2) Whenever the Board believes an activity of a savings and loan holding company or control of a nonbank subsidiary (other than a nonbank subsidiary of a savings association) constitutes a serious risk to the financial safety, soundness, or stability of a subsidiary savings association of the savings and loan holding company and is inconsistent with sound banking principles or the purposes of HOLA or the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) et seq.), the Board may require the savings and loan holding company to terminate the activity or to terminate control of the subsidiary, as provided in section 10(g)(5) of the HOLA., (b) The Board's Small Bank Holding Company Policy Statement (12 CFR part 225, appendix C) (Policy Statement) applies to savings and loan holding companies as if they were bank holding companies. To qualify or rely on the Policy Statement, savings and loan holding companies must meet all qualifying requirements in the Policy Statement as if they were a bank holding company. For purposes of applying the Policy Statement, the term “nonbank subsidiary” as used in the Policy Statement refers to a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company other than a savings association or a subsidiary of a savings association., (c) The Board may exclude any savings and loan holding company, regardless of asset size, from the Policy Statement under paragraph (b) of this section if the Board determines that such action is warranted for supervisory purposes.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "For the purpose of this part, the following definitions apply:, (a) Voluntary liquidation means the dissolution of a solvent Federal credit union with the assets being sold or collected, liabilities paid, and shares distributed under the direction of the board of directors or its duly appointed liquidating agent., (b) Liquidation date means the date the members vote to approve liquidation., (c) Liquidating agent means the person or persons, including any legally recognized entity, appointed by the board of directors to liquidate the Federal credit union.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "A financial institution is not entitled to reimbursement under this subpart for costs incurred in assembling or providing financial records or information related to: , (a) Security interests, bankruptcy claims, debt collection. Any financial records provided as an incident to perfecting a security interest, proving a claim in bankruptcy, or otherwise collecting on a debt owing either to the financial institution itself or in its role as a fiduciary. , (b) Government loan programs. Financial records that are necessary to permit the appropriate government authority to carry out its responsibilities under a government loan, loan guaranty or loan insurance program. , (c) Nonidentifiable information. Financial records that are not identified with or identifiable as being derived from the financial records of a particular customer. , (d) Financial supervisory agencies. Financial records disclosed to a financial supervisory agency in the exercise of its supervisory, regulatory, or monetary functions with respect to a financial institution. , (e) Internal Revenue summons. Financial records disclosed in accordance with procedures authorized by the Internal Revenue Code. , (f) Federally required reports. Financial records required to be reported in accordance with any federal statute or rule promulgated thereunder. , (g) Government civil or criminal litigation. Financial records sought by a government authority under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure or comparable rules of other courts in connection with litigation to which the government authority and the customer are parties. , (h) Administrative agency subpoenas. Financial records sought by a government authority pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued by an administrative law judge in an adjudicatory proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 554, and to which the government authority and the customer are parties. , (i) Investigation of financial institution or its noncustomer. Financial records sought by a government authority in connection with a lawful proceeding, investigation, examination, or inspection directed at the financial institution in possession of such records, or at an entity that is not a customer as defined in § 219.2 of this part. , (j) General Accounting Office requests. Financial records sought by the General Accounting Office pursuant to an authorized proceeding, investigation, examination, or audit directed at a government authority. , (k) Federal Housing Finance Board requests. Financial records or information sought by the Federal Housing Finance Board (FHFB) or any of the Federal home loan banks in the exercise of the FHFB's authority to extend credit to financial institutions or others. , (l) Department of Veterans Affairs. The disclosure of the name and address of any customer to the Department of Veterans Affairs where such disclosure is necessary to, and used solely for, the proper administration of benefits programs under laws administered by that Department. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Adoption and review of member products policy - (1) Adoption. Each Bank's board of directors shall have in effect at all times a policy that addresses the Bank's management of products offered by the Bank to members and housing associates, including but not limited to advances, standby letters of credit, and acquired member assets, consistent with the requirements of the Bank Act, paragraph (b) of this section, and all applicable FHFA regulations and policies., (2) Review and compliance. Each Bank's board of directors shall:, (i) Review the Bank's member products policy annually;, (ii) Amend the member products policy as appropriate; and, (iii) Re-adopt the member products policy, including interim amendments, not less often than every three years., (b) Member products policy requirements. In addition to meeting any other requirements set forth in this chapter, each Bank's member products policy shall:, (1) Address credit underwriting criteria to be applied in evaluating applications for advances, standby letters of credit, and renewals;, (2) Address appropriate levels of collateralization, valuation of collateral and discounts applied to collateral values for advances and standby letters of credit;, (3) Address advances-related fees to be charged by each Bank, including any schedules or formulas pertaining to such fees;, (4) Address standards and criteria for pricing member products, including differential pricing of advances pursuant to § 1266.5(b)(2) of this chapter, and criteria regarding the pricing of standby letters of credit, including any special pricing provisions for standby letters of credit that facilitate the financing of projects that are eligible for any of the Banks' CICA programs under part 1292 of this chapter;, (5) Provide that, for any draw made by a beneficiary under a standby letter of credit, the member will be charged a processing fee calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1271.6(b) of this chapter;, (6) Address the maintenance of appropriate systems, procedures, and internal controls; and, (7) Address the maintenance of appropriate operational and personnel capacity.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Limitations prior to account opening and during first year after account opening - (1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the total amount of fees a consumer is required to pay with respect to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan prior to account opening and during the first year after account opening must not exceed 25 percent of the credit limit in effect when the account is opened. For purposes of this paragraph, an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions., (2) Fees not subject to limitations. Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to:, (i) Late payment fees, over-the-limit fees, and returned-payment fees; or, (ii) Fees that the consumer is not required to pay with respect to the account., (3) Rule of construction. Paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the imposition or payment of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law., (b) Limitations on penalty fees. A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan unless the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section., (1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section., (i) Fees based on costs. A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account if the card issuer has determined that the dollar amount of the fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation. A card issuer must reevaluate this determination at least once every twelve months. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a lower fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer must begin imposing the lower fee within 45 days after completing the reevaluation. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a higher fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer may begin imposing the higher fee after complying with the notice requirements in § 226.9., (ii) Safe harbors. A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed, as applicable:, (A) $25.00;, (B) $35.00 if the card issuer previously imposed a fee pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section for a violation of the same type that occurred during the same billing cycle or one of the next six billing cycles; or, (C) Three percent of the delinquent balance on a charge card account that requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle if the card issuer has not received the required payment for two or more consecutive billing cycles., (D) The amounts in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section will be adjusted annually by the Board to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index., (2) Prohibited fees - (i) Fees that exceed dollar amount associated with violation - (A) Generally. A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that exceeds the dollar amount associated with the violation., (B) No dollar amount associated with violation. A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan when there is no dollar amount associated with the violation. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, there is no dollar amount associated with the following violations:, (1) Transactions that the card issuer declines to authorize;, (2) Account inactivity; and, (3) The closure or termination of an account., (ii) Multiple fees based on a single event or transaction. A card issuer must not impose more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan based on a single event or transaction. A card issuer may, at its option, comply with this prohibition by imposing no more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account during a billing cycle.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "This subpart applies to foreign banking organizations with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, but average combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "For the purposes of this part:, (a) Agency means the Farm Credit Administration., (b) Individual means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;, (c) Maintain includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate;, (d) Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency including, but not limited to, that person's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, and that contains that person's name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or photograph;, (e) Routine use means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;, (f) Statistical record means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8;, (g) System of records means a group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Adequacy. A member bank's capital, calculated in accordance with part 217, shall be at all times adequate in relation to the character and condition liabilities and other corporate responsibilities. If at any time, in light of all the circumstances, the bank's capital appears inadequate in relation to its assets, liabilities, and responsibilities, the bank shall increase the amount of its capital, within such period as the Board deems reasonable, to an amount which, in the judgment of the Board, shall be adequate. , (b) Standards for evaluating capital adequacy. Standards and measures, by which the Board evaluates the capital adequacy of member banks for risk-based capital purposes and for leverage measurement purposes, are located in part 217 of this chapter. ", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "NCUA may request that monies payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset to collect debts owed to NCUA by the debtor. NCUA shall provide OPM with a written certification that states the debtor owes the debt, the amount of the debt, and that NCUA has complied with the agency's offset regulations, as well as, the requirements set forth in 31 CFR parts 900 through 904 and OPM's regulations.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Except as otherwise defined, the term Farm Credit bank(s) includes Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, and banks for cooperatives.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "To enter into Derivative transactions under this subpart, a Federal credit union must:, (a) Have an executed Master Services Agreement with a Counterparty. Such agreement must be reviewed by counsel with expertise in similar types of transactions to ensure the agreement reasonably protects the interests of the Federal credit union;, (b) Use only the following Counterparties:, (1) For exchange-traded and cleared Derivatives: Swap Dealers, Introducing Brokers, and/or FCMs that are current registrants of the CFTC; or, (2) For Non-cleared Derivative transactions: Swap Dealers that are current registrants of the CFTC., (c) Utilize contracted Margin requirements with a maximum Margin threshold amount of $250,000; and, (d) For Non-cleared Derivative transactions, accept as eligible collateral, for Margin requirements, only the following: Cash (U.S. dollars), U.S. Treasuries, government-sponsored enterprise debt, U.S. government agency debt, government-sponsored enterprise residential mortgage-backed security pass-through securities, and U.S. government agency residential mortgage-backed security pass-through securities.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) General rule. An advertisement for a consumer lease may state that a specific lease of property at specific amounts or terms is available only if the lessor usually and customarily leases or will lease the property at those amounts or terms. , (b) Clear and conspicuous standard. Disclosures required by this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously. , (1) Amount due at lease signing or delivery. Except for the statement of a periodic payment, any affirmative or negative reference to a charge that is a part of the disclosure required under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section shall not be more prominent than that disclosure. , (2) Advertisement of a lease rate. If a lessor provides a percentage rate in an advertisement, the rate shall not be more prominent than any of the disclosures in § 213.4, with the exception of the notice in § 213.4(s) required to accompany the rate; and the lessor shall not use the term “annual percentage rate,” “annual lease rate,” or equivalent term. , (c) Catalogs or other multipage advertisements; electronic advertisements. A catalog or other multipage advertisement , or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), that provides a table or schedule of the required disclosures shall be considered a single advertisement if, for lease terms that appear without all the required disclosures, the advertisement refers to the page or pages on which the table or schedule appears., (d) Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosure - (1) Triggering terms. An advertisement that states any of the following items shall contain the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section: , (i) The amount of any payment; or , (ii) A statement of any capitalized cost reduction or other payment (or that no payment is required) prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation., (2) Additional terms. An advertisement stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall also state the following items: , (i) That the transaction advertised is a lease; , (ii) The total amount due prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation; , (iii) The number, amounts, and due dates or periods of scheduled payments under the lease; , (iv) A statement of whether or not a security deposit is required; and , (v) A statement that an extra charge may be imposed at the end of the lease term where the lessee's liability (if any) is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value at the end of the lease term. , (e) Alternative disclosures - merchandise tags. A merchandise tag stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section by referring to a sign or display prominently posted in the lessor's place of business that contains a table or schedule of the required disclosures. , (f) Alternative disclosures - television or radio advertisements - (1) Toll-free number or print advertisement. An advertisement made through television or radio stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the advertisement states the items listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, and: , (i) Lists a toll-free telephone number along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or , (ii) Directs the consumer to a written advertisement in a publication of general circulation in the community served by the media station, including the name and the date of the publication, with a statement that information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section is included in the advertisement. The written advertisement shall be published beginning at least three days before and ending at least ten days after the broadcast. , (2) Establishment of toll-free number. (i) The toll-free telephone number shall be available for no fewer than ten days, beginning on the date of the broadcast. , (ii) The lessor shall provide the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section orally, or in writing upon request. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "Unless otherwise specified, the following definitions apply for purposes of this part:, Affiliate has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)) and 12 CFR 225.2(a)., Applicable accounting standards means GAAP, international financial reporting standards, or such other accounting standards that a company uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements., Average combined U.S. assets means the average of combined U.S. assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the combined U.S. assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average cross-jurisdictional activity means the average of cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the cross-jurisdictional activity for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average off-balance sheet exposure means the average of off-balance sheet exposure for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total exposure and total consolidated assets or combined U.S. assets, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the off-balance sheet exposure for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average total consolidated assets means the average of total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total consolidated assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average total nonbank assets means the average of total nonbank assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported or calculated total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total nonbank assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average U.S. non-branch assets means the average of U.S. non-branch assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported the total consolidated assets of its top-tier U.S. subsidiaries for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the U.S. non-branch assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Average weighted short-term wholesale funding means the average of weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the weighted short-term wholesale funding for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable., Bank holding company has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)) and 12 CFR 225.2(c)., Banking organization means:, (1) A bank holding company that is a U.S. bank holding company;, (2) A U.S. intermediate holding company; or, (3) A foreign banking organization., Board means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System., Category II bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category II foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category II U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category III bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category III foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category III U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category IV bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category IV foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5., Combined U.S. assets means the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and the total assets of each U.S. branch and U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15 or FR Y-7Q., Combined U.S. operations means:, (1) The U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization; and, (2) The U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and subsidiaries of such U.S. subsidiaries., Company means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization., Control has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), and the terms controlled and controlling shall be construed consistently with the term control., Council means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321)., Credit enhancement means a qualified financial contract of the type set forth in section 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI)) or a credit enhancement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a qualified financial contract pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i))., Cross-jurisdictional activity. The cross-jurisdictional activity of a banking organization is equal to the cross-jurisdictional activity of the banking organization as reported on the FR Y-15., Depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c))., DPC branch subsidiary means any subsidiary of a U.S. branch or a U.S. agency acquired, or formed to hold assets acquired, in the ordinary course of business and for the sole purpose of securing or collecting debt previously contracted in good faith by that branch or agency., Foreign banking organization has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o), provided that if the top-tier foreign banking organization is incorporated in or organized under the laws of any State, the foreign banking organization shall not be treated as a foreign banking organization for purposes of this part., FR Y-7 means the Annual Report of Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form., FR Y-7Q means the Capital and Asset Report for Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form., FR Y-9C means the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies reporting form., FR Y-9LP means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements of Large Holding Companies., FR Y-15 means the Systemic Risk Report., Global methodology means the assessment methodology and the higher loss absorbency requirement for global systemically important banks issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as updated from time to time., Global systemically important banking organization means a global systemically important bank, as such term is defined in the global methodology., Global systemically important BHC means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402., Global systemically important foreign banking organization means a top-tier foreign banking organization that is identified as a global systemically important foreign banking organization under § 252.147(b)(4) or § 252.153(b)(4) of this part., GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States., Home country, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the country in which the foreign banking organization is chartered or incorporated., Home country resolution authority, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the resolution of the top-tier foreign banking organization., Home-country supervisor, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the supervision and regulation of the top-tier foreign banking organization., Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board means a company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect., Non-U.S. affiliate means any affiliate of a foreign banking organization that is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States., Off-balance sheet exposure. (1) The off-balance sheet exposure of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to:, (i) The total exposure of such banking organization, as reported by the banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus, (ii) The total consolidated assets of such banking organization for the same calendar quarter., (2) The off-balance sheet exposure of a foreign banking organization is equal to:, (i) The total exposure of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus, (ii) The combined U.S. assets of the foreign banking organization for the same calendar quarter., Publicly traded means an instrument that is traded on:, (1) Any exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or, (2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:, (i) Is registered with, or approved by, a non-U.S. national securities regulatory authority; and, (ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question, meaning that there are enough independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a sales price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined promptly and a trade can be settled at such price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom., (3) A company can rely on its determination that a particular non-U.S.-based securities exchange provides a liquid two-way market unless the Board determines that the exchange does not provide a liquid two-way market., Section 2(h)(2) company has the same meaning as in section 2(h)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(h)(2))., State means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands., State member bank has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 208.2(g)., Subsidiary has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813)., Top-tier foreign banking organization, with respect to a foreign bank, means the top-tier foreign banking organization or, alternatively, a subsidiary of the top-tier foreign banking organization designated by the Board., Total consolidated assets. (1) Total consolidated assets of a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total consolidated assets of such banking organization calculated based on the average of the balances as of the close of business for each day for the calendar quarter or an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, as reported on the FR Y-9C., (2) Total consolidated assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to the total consolidated assets of the foreign banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-7Q., (3) Total consolidated assets of a state member bank is equal to the total consolidated assets as reported by a state member bank on its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report)., Total nonbank assets. (1) Total nonbank assets of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total nonbank assets of such banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-9LP., (2) Total nonbank assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to:, (i) The sum of the total nonbank assets of any U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, as reported on the FR Y-9LP; plus, (ii) The assets of the foreign banking organization's nonbank U.S. subsidiaries excluding the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any; plus, (iii) The sum of the foreign banking organization's equity investments in unconsolidated U.S. subsidiaries, excluding equity investments in any section 2(h)(2) company; minus, (iv) The assets of any section 2(h)(2) company., U.S. agency has the same meaning as the term “agency” in § 211.21(b) of this chapter., U.S. bank holding company means a bank holding company that is:, (1) Incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and, (2) Not a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State., U.S. branch has the same meaning as the term “branch” in § 211.21(e) of this chapter., U.S. branches and agencies means the U.S. branches and U.S. agencies of a foreign banking organization., U.S. government agency means an agency or instrumentality of the United States whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States., U.S. government-sponsored enterprise means an entity originally established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress, but whose obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States., U.S. intermediate holding company means a top-tier U.S. company that is required to be established pursuant to § 252.147 or § 252.153., U.S. non-branch assets. U.S. non-branch assets are equal to the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary, if applicable) as reported on the FR Y-7Q. In calculating U.S. non-branch assets, a foreign banking organization must reduce its U.S. non-branch assets by the amount corresponding to balances and transactions between a top-tier U.S. subsidiary and any other top-tier U.S. subsidiary (excluding any 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary) to the extent such items are not already eliminated in consolidation., U.S. subsidiary means any subsidiary that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the North Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands., Weighted short-term wholesale funding is equal to the weighted short-term wholesale funding of a banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-15.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Limits on credit exposure. (1) The policies and procedures on exposure established by a bank under § 206.3(c) of this part shall limit a bank's interday credit exposure to an individual correspondent to not more than 25 percent of the bank's total capital, unless the bank can demonstrate that its correspondent is at least adequately capitalized, as defined in § 206.5(a) of this part., (2) Where a bank is no longer able to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized for the purposes of § 206.4(a) of this part, including where the bank cannot obtain adequate information concerning the capital ratios of the correspondent, the bank shall reduce its credit exposure to comply with the requirements of § 206.4(a)(1) of this part within 120 days after the date when the current Report of Condition and Income or other relevant report normally would be available., (b) Calculation of credit exposure. Except as provided in §§ 206.4 (c) and (d) of this part, the credit exposure of a bank to a correspondent shall consist of the bank's assets and off-balance sheet items that are subject to capital requirements under the capital adequacy guidelines of the bank's primary federal supervisor, and that involve claims on the correspondent or capital instruments issued by the correspondent. For this purpose, off-balance sheet items shall be valued on the basis of current exposure. The term “credit exposure” does not include exposure related to the settlement of transactions, intraday exposure, transactions in an agency or similar capacity where losses will be passed back to the principal or other party, or other sources of exposure that are not covered by the capital adequacy guidelines., (c) Netting. Transactions covered by netting agreements that are valid and enforceable under all applicable laws may be netted in calculating credit exposure., (d) Exclusions. A bank may exclude the following from the calculation of credit exposure to a correspondent:, (1) Transactions, including reverse repurchase agreements, to the extent that the transactions are secured by government securities or readily marketable collateral, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, based on the current market value of the collateral;, (2) The proceeds of checks and other cash items deposited in an account at a correspondent that are not yet available for withdrawal;, (3) Quality assets, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, on which the correspondent is secondarily liable, or obligations of the correspondent on which a creditworthy obligor in addition to the correspondent is available, including but not limited to:, (i) Loans to third parties secured by stock or debt obligations of the correspondent;, (ii) Loans to third parties purchased from the correspondent with recourse;, (iii) Loans or obligations of third parties backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by the correspondent; or, (iv) Obligations of the correspondent backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by a creditworthy third party;, (4) exposure that results from the merger with or acquisition of another bank for one year after that merger or acquisition is consummated; and, (5) The portion of the bank's exposure to the correspondent that is covered by federal deposit insurance., (e) Credit exposure of subsidiaries. In calculating credit exposure to a correspondent under this part, a bank shall include credit exposure to the correspondent of any entity that the bank is required to consolidate on its Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report., (f) Definitions. As used in this section: , (1) Government securities means obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States government or any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States, or any corporation wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by the United States., (2) Readily marketable collateral means financial instruments or bullion that may be sold in ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions on an auction or a similarly available daily bid- ask-price market., (3)(i) Quality asset means an asset:, (A) That is not in a nonaccrual status;, (B) On which principal or interest is not more than thirty days past due; and, (C) Whose terms have not been renegotiated or compromised due to the deteriorating financial conditions of the additional obligor., (ii) An asset is not considered a “quality asset” if any other loans to the primary obligor on the asset have been classified as “substandard,” “doubtful,” or “loss,” or treated as “other loans specially mentioned” in the most recent report of examination or inspection of the bank or an affiliate prepared by either a federal or a state supervisory agency.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Except in the case of a security interest in favor of the United States or a Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise as provided in § 1511.4(c)(1), for the purposes of this part 1511, the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks shall treat the Participant to whose Securities Account an interest in a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security has been credited as the Person exclusively entitled to issue a Transfer Message, to receive interest and other payments with respect thereof and otherwise to exercise all the rights and powers with respect to such Security, notwithstanding any information or notice to the contrary. Neither the Federal Reserve Banks nor the Funding Corporation is liable to a Person asserting or having an Adverse Claim to a Security Entitlement or to a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security in a Participant's Securities Account, including any such claim arising as a result of the transfer or disposition of a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security by a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to a Transfer Message that the Federal Reserve Bank reasonably believes to be genuine. , (b) The obligation of the Funding Corporation to make payments of interest and principal with respect to Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities is discharged at the time payment in the appropriate amount is made as follows: , (1) Interest on Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities is either credited by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Funds Account maintained at such Bank or otherwise paid as directed by the Participant. , (2) Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities are redeemed in accordance with their terms by a Federal Reserve Bank withdrawing the securities from the Participant's Securities Account in which they are maintained and by either crediting the amount of the redemption proceeds, including both principal and interest where applicable, to a Funds Account at such Bank or otherwise paying such principal and interest, as directed by the Participant. The principal of such Securities shall be paid using the proceeds of the noninterest bearing instruments maintained by the Funding Corporation for such purpose. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) In general. No Enterprise shall re-direct or pass through the cost of any allocation to the Housing Trust Fund or the Capital Magnet Fund required pursuant to section 1337(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4567(a), through increased charges or fees, or decreased premiums, or in any other manner, to the originators of mortgages purchased or securitized by the Enterprise., (b) Enforcement. Compliance by each Enterprise with the foregoing prohibition shall be enforced under subpart 3 of part B of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4581-89.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the NCUA Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the NCUA Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the NCUA Board. The NCUA Board may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "An institution may not permit any person to sell or offer for sale any insurance product or annuity in any part of its office or on its behalf, unless the person is at all times appropriately qualified and licensed under applicable State insurance licensing standards with regard to the specific products being sold or recommended.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Adoption of commencement resolution. Your board of directors must begin the termination process by adopting a commencement resolution stating your intention to terminate Farm Credit status under section 7.10 of the Act. Immediately after you adopt the commencement resolution, send a certified copy by overnight mail to us and to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (FCSIC). If your institution is an association, also send a copy to your affiliated bank. If your institution is a bank, also send a copy to your affiliated associations, the other Farm Credit banks, and the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation (Funding Corporation)., (b) Advance notice. Within 5 business days after adopting the commencement resolution, you must:, (1) Send us copies of all contracts and agreements related to the termination., (2) Subject to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section:, (i) Send an advance notice to all equity holders stating you are taking steps to terminate System status. Immediately upon mailing the notice to equity holders, you must also place it in a prominent location on your Web site. The advance notice must describe the following:, (A) The process of termination;, (B) The expected effect of termination on borrowers and other equity holders, including the effect on borrower rights and the consequences of any stock retirements before termination;, (C) The type of charter the successor institution will have; and, (D) Any bylaw creating a special class of borrower stock and participation certificates under paragraph (f) of this section., (ii) Send us a draft of the advance notice by facsimile or electronic mail before mailing it to your equity holders. If we have not contacted you within 2 business days of our receipt of the draft notice regarding modifications, you may mail the notice to your equity holders., (c) Bank negotiations on joint and several liability. If your institution is a terminating bank, within 10 days of adopting the commencement resolution, your bank and the other Farm Credit banks must begin negotiations to provide for your satisfaction of liabilities (other than your primary liability) under section 4.4 of the Act. The Funding Corporation may, at its option, be a party to the negotiations to the extent necessary to fulfill its duties with respect to financing and disclosure. The agreement must comply with the requirements in § 611.1270(c)., (d) Disclosure to loan applicants and equity holders after commencement resolution. Between the date your board of directors adopts the commencement resolution and the termination date, you must give the following information to your loan applicants and equity holders:, (1) For each loan applicant who is not a current stockholder, describe at the time of loan application:, (i) The effect of the proposed termination on the prospective loan; and, (ii) Whether, after the proposed termination, the borrower will continue to have any of the borrower rights provided under the Act and regulations., (2) For any equity holders who ask to have their equities retired, explain that the retirement would extinguish the holder's right to exchange those equities for an interest in the successor institution. In addition, inform holders of equities entitled to your residual assets in liquidation that retirement before termination would extinguish their right to dissent from the termination and have their equities retired., (e) Terminating bank's right to continue issuing debt. Through the termination date, a terminating bank may continue to participate in the issuance of consolidated and System-wide obligations to the same extent it would be able to participate if it were not terminating., (f) Special class of stock. Notwithstanding any requirements to the contrary in § 615.5230(c) of this chapter, you may adopt bylaws providing for the issuance of a special class of stock and participation certificates between the date of adoption of a commencement resolution and the termination date. Your voting stockholders must approve the special class before you adopt the commencement resolution. The equities must comply with section 4.3A of the Act and be identical in all respects to existing classes of equities that are entitled to the residual assets of the institution in a liquidation, except for the value a holder will receive in a termination. In a termination, the holder of the special class of stock receives value equal to the lower of either par (or face) value, or the value calculated under § 611.1280(c) and (d). A holder must have the same right to vote (if the equity is held on the voting record date) and to dissent as holders of similar equities issued before the commencement resolution. If the termination does not occur, the special classes of stock and participation certificates must automatically convert into shares of the otherwise identical equities.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "The Financing Corporation shall file such reports as FHFA shall direct.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "This section recodifies the requirements from 12 CFR 701.34(b), (c), and (d) that were in effect as of December 31, 2021, with minor modifications. The terminology used in this section is specific to this section. Except as provided in the next sentence, all secondary capital issued under § 701.34 of this chapter before January 1, 2022, or, in the case of a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, § 741.204(c) of this chapter, that is referred to elsewhere in this subpart as “Grandfathered Secondary Capital,” is subject to the requirements set forth in this section. Issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, are also considered “Grandfathered Secondary Capital” irrespective of the date of issuance., (a) Secondary capital is subject to the following conditions:, (1) Secondary capital plan. A credit union that has Grandfathered Secondary Capital under this section must have a written, NCUA-approved “Secondary Capital Plan” that, at a minimum:, (i) States the maximum aggregate amount of uninsured secondary capital the LICU plans to accept;, (ii) Identifies the purpose for which the aggregate secondary capital will be used, and how it will be repaid;, (iii) Explains how the LICU will provide for liquidity to repay secondary capital upon maturity of the accounts;, (iv) Demonstrates that the planned uses of secondary capital conform to the LICU's strategic plan, business plan, and budget; and, (v) Includes supporting pro forma financial statements, including any off-balance sheet items, covering a minimum of the next two years., (2) Issuances not completed before January 1, 2022. Except as provided in the next sentence, any issuances of secondary capital not completed by January 1, 2022, are, as of January 1, 2022, subject to the requirements applicable to Subordinated Debt discussed elsewhere in this subpart. Issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, are not subject to the requirements applicable to Subordinated Debt, discussed elsewhere in this subpart, irrespective of the date of issuance., (3) Nonshare account. The secondary capital account is established as an uninsured secondary capital account or other form of non-share account., (4) Minimum maturity. The maturity of the secondary capital account is a minimum of five years., (5) Uninsured account. The secondary capital account is not insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or any governmental or private entity., (6) Subordination of claim. The secondary capital account investor's claim against the LICU is subordinate to all other claims including those of shareholders, creditors and the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund., (7) Availability to cover losses. Funds deposited into a secondary capital account, including interest accrued and paid into the secondary capital account, are available to cover operating losses realized by the LICU that exceed its net available reserves (exclusive of secondary capital and allowance accounts for loan and lease losses), and to the extent funds are so used, the LICU must not restore or replenish the account under any circumstances. The LICU may, in lieu of paying interest into the secondary capital account, pay accrued interest directly to the investor or into a separate account from which the secondary capital investor may make withdrawals. Losses must be distributed pro-rata among all secondary capital accounts held by the LICU at the time the losses are realized. In instances where a LICU accepted secondary capital from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions under the Community Development Capital Initiative of 2010 (“CDCI secondary capital”) and matching funds were required under the Initiative and are on deposit in the form of secondary capital at the time a loss is realized, a LICU must apply either of the following pro-rata loss distribution procedures to its secondary capital accounts with respect to the loss:, (i) If not inconsistent with any agreements governing other secondary capital on deposit at the time a loss is realized, the CDCI secondary capital may be excluded from the calculation of the pro-rata loss distribution until all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted, thereby causing the CDCI secondary capital to be held as senior to all other secondary capital until its matching secondary capital is exhausted. The CDCI secondary capital should be included in the calculation of the pro-rata loss distribution and is available to cover the loss only after all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted., (ii) Regardless of any agreements applicable to other secondary capital, the CDCI secondary capital and its matching secondary capital may be considered a single account for purposes of determining a pro-rata share of the loss and the amount determined as the pro-rata share for the combined account must first be applied to the matching secondary capital account, thereby causing the CDCI secondary capital to be held as senior to its matching secondary capital. The CDCI secondary capital is available to cover the loss only after all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted., (8) Security. The secondary capital account may not be pledged or provided by the account investor as security on a loan or other obligation with the LICU or any other party., (9) Merger or dissolution. In the event of merger or other voluntary dissolution of the LICU, other than merger into another LICU, the secondary capital accounts will be closed and paid out to the account investor to the extent they are not needed to cover losses at the time of merger or dissolution., (10) Contract agreement. A secondary capital account contract agreement must have been executed by an authorized representative of the account investor and of the LICU reflecting the terms and conditions mandated by this section and any other terms and conditions not inconsistent with this section., (11) Disclosure and acknowledgement. An authorized representative of the LICU and of the secondary capital account investor each must have executed a “Disclosure and Acknowledgment” as set forth in the appendix to this subpart at the time of entering into the account agreement. The LICU must retain an original of the account agreement and the “Disclosure and Acknowledgment” for the term of the agreement, and a copy must be provided to the account investor., (12) Prompt corrective action. As provided in this part, the NCUA may prohibit a LICU as classified “critically undercapitalized” or, if “new,” as “moderately capitalized”, “marginally capitalized”, “minimally capitalized” or “uncapitalized,” as the case may be, from paying principal, dividends, or interest on its uninsured secondary capital accounts established after August 7, 2000, except that unpaid dividends or interest will continue to accrue under the terms of the account to the extent permitted by law., (b) Accounting treatment; Recognition of net worth value of accounts - (1) Debt. A LICU that issued secondary capital accounts pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must record the funds on its balance sheet as a debt titled “uninsured secondary capital account.”, (2) Schedule for recognizing net worth value. The LICU's reflection of the net worth value of the accounts in its financial statement may never exceed the full balance of the secondary capital on deposit after any early redemptions and losses. For accounts with remaining maturities of less than five years, the LICU must reflect the net worth value of the accounts in its financial statement in accordance with the lesser of:, (i) The remaining balance of the accounts after any redemptions and losses; or, (ii) The amounts calculated based on the following schedule:,

Table 1 to Paragraph (b)(2)(ii), (3) Financial statement. The LICU must reflect the full amount of the secondary capital on deposit in a footnote to its financial statement., (c) Redemption of secondary capital. With the written approval of NCUA, secondary capital that is not recognized as net worth under paragraph (b)(2) of this section (“discounted secondary capital” re-categorized as Subordinated Debt) may be redeemed according to the remaining maturity schedule in paragraph (c)(3) of this section., (1) Request to redeem secondary capital. A request for approval to redeem discounted secondary capital may be submitted in writing at any time, must specify the increment(s) to be redeemed and the schedule for redeeming all or any part of each eligible increment, and must demonstrate to the satisfaction of NCUA that:, (i) The LICU will have a post-redemption net worth classification of at least “adequately capitalized” under this part;, (ii) The discounted secondary capital has been on deposit at least two years;, (iii) The discounted secondary capital will not be needed to cover losses prior to final maturity of the account;, (iv) The LICU's books and records are current and reconciled;, (v) The proposed redemption will not jeopardize other current sources of funding, if any, to the LICU; and, (vi) The request to redeem is authorized by resolution of the LICU's board of directors., (2) Decision on request. A request to redeem discounted secondary capital may be granted in whole or in part. If a LICU is not notified within 45 days of receipt of a request for approval to redeem secondary capital that its request is either granted or denied, the LICU may proceed to redeem secondary capital accounts as proposed., (3) Schedule for redeeming secondary capital.,

Table 2 to Paragraph (c)(3), (4) Early redemption exception. Subject to the written approval of NCUA obtained pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a LICU can redeem all or part of secondary capital accepted from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions at any time after the secondary capital has been on deposit for two years. If the secondary capital was accepted under conditions that required matching secondary capital from a source other than the Federal Government, the matching secondary capital may also be redeemed in the manner set forth in the preceding sentence. For purposes of obtaining NCUA's approval, all secondary capital a LICU accepts from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions, as well as its matching secondary capital, if any, is eligible for early redemption regardless of whether any part of the secondary capital has been discounted pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Form. Credit unions must make the disclosures required by §§ 707.4 through 707.6 of this part, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously, in writing, and in a form the member or potential member may keep. Credit unions may provide the disclosures required by this part to a member or potential member in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act), 15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq. Credit unions may provide the disclosures required by §§ 707.4(a)(2) and 707.8 to a member or potential member in electronic form without regard to the consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. Disclosures for each account offered by a credit union may be presented separately or combined with disclosures for the credit union's other accounts, as long as it is clear which disclosures are applicable to the member or potential member's account., (b) General. The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the member and the credit union. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided the disclosures are available in English upon request., (c) Relation to Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005). Disclosures required by and provided in accordance with the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1601) and its implementing Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) that are also required by this part may be substituted for the disclosures required by this part., (d) Multiple members. If an account is held by more than one member, disclosures may be made to any one of the members., (e) Oral responses to inquiries. In an oral response to a member or potential member's inquiry about dividend rates payable on its accounts, the credit union shall state the annual percentage yield. The dividend rate may be stated in addition to the annual percentage yield. No other rate may be stated. In stating a dividend rate and annual percentage yield, a credit union shall:, (1) For dividend-bearing accounts other than term share accounts, specify a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. In the event that disclosures of a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date might be inaccurate because of known or contemplated dividend rate changes, the credit union may disclose the prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield may be disclosed either in lieu of, or in addition to, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. , (2) For interest-bearing accounts and for dividend-bearing term share accounts, specify an interest (dividend) rate and annual percentage yield that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days; state that the rate and yield are accurate as of an identified date; and provide a telephone number members may call to obtain current rate information. , (f) Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields - (1) Rounding. The annual percentage yield, the annual percentage yield earned, and the dividend rate shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percentage point (.01%) and expressed to two decimal places. For account disclosures, the dividend rate may be expressed to more than two decimal places. , (2) Accuracy. The annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) will be considered accurate if not more than one-twentieth of one percentage point (.05%) above or below the annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) determined in accordance with the rules in appendix A of this part. ", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Penalties under section 10(k) of the FDI Act. A senior examiner of the FDIC who violates the post-employment restrictions set forth in § 336.12 shall be subject to the following penalties - , (1) An order - , (i) Removing such person from office or prohibiting such person from further participation in the affairs of the relevant insured depository institution or company (including a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company) that controls such institution for a period of up to five years, and, (ii) Prohibiting any further participation by such person, in any manner, in the affairs of any insured depository institution for a period of up to five years; or, (2) A civil monetary penalty of not more than $250,000; or, (3) Both., (b) Enforcement by appropriate Federal banking agency of hiring entity. Violations of § 336.12 shall be enforced by the appropriate Federal banking agency of the depository institution, depository institution holding company, or other company at which the violation occurred, as determined under section 10(k)(6), which may be an agency other than the FDIC., (c) Scope of prohibition orders. Any senior examiner who is subject to an order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, as required by 12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)(B), be subject to paragraphs (6) and (7) of section 8(e) in the same manner and to the same extent as a person subject to an order issued under section 8(e)., (d) Other penalties. The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 336.12 may also be subject to other administrative, civil, or criminal remedies or penalties as provided by law.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "Sales of securities of a State savings association or its affiliates at an office of a State savings association may only be made in accordance with the provisions of § 390.340.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "Authority for loan approval is vested in the Farm Credit banks and associations.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Equal opportunity notice. Each regulated entity shall publish a statement, endorsed by its Chief Executive Officer and approved by its Board of Directors, confirming its commitment to the principles of equal opportunity in employment and in contracting, at a minimum, regardless of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability status, genetic information, age, sexual orientation, gender identity, or status as a parent. The notice also shall confirm commitment against retaliation or reprisal. Publication shall include, at a minimum, conspicuous posting in all regulated entity physical facilities, including through alternative media formats, as necessary, and accessible posting on the regulated entity's Web site. The notice shall be updated and re-published, re-endorsed by the Chief Executive Officer and re-approved by the Board of Directors annually., (b) Policies and procedures. Each regulated entity shall develop, implement, and maintain policies and procedures to ensure, to the maximum extent possible in balance with financially safe and sound business practices, the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses in all business and activities and at all levels of the regulated entity, including in management, employment, procurement, insurance, and all types of contracts. The policies and procedures of each regulated entity, at a minimum, shall:, (1) Confirm its adherence to the principles of equal opportunity and non-discrimination in employment and in contracting;, (2) Describe its practices and principles for prohibiting discrimination in employment and contracting;, (3) Describe its processes for giving consideration to MWDOBs when reviewing and evaluating contract proposals and hiring service providers as required under § 1223.2(c);, (4) Establish a process for receiving and attempting to resolve complaints of discrimination in employment and in contracting. Publication will include, at a minimum, making the procedure conspicuously accessible to employees and applicants through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site;, (5) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations of disabilities from employees or applicants for employment;, (6) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations for religious beliefs or practices from employees or applicants for employment;, (7) Encourage the consideration of diversity in nominating or soliciting nominees for positions on boards of directors and engage in recruiting and outreach directed at encouraging individuals who are minorities, women and individuals with disabilities to seek or apply for employment with the regulated entity;, (8) Establish a process for developing a stand-alone D&I strategic plan or incorporating into its existing strategic plan a D&I plan that proactively focuses on promoting the advancement of D&I. The stand-alone D&I strategic plan and the incorporated D&I plan are hereinafter referred to as the D&I strategic plan;, (9) Except as limited by § 1223.3(b), require that each contract it enters contains a material clause committing the contractor to practice the principles of equal employment opportunity and non-discrimination in all its business activities and requiring each such contractor to include the clause in each subcontract it enters for services or goods provided to the regulated entity;, (10) Identify the types of contracts the regulated entity considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for implementing paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The policies and procedures must describe the following:, (i) The rationale and need for the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations;, (ii) The criteria used to implement the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations; and, (iii) Any negative or adverse impact the implementation of the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations would likely have on contracting opportunities for minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs;, (11) Be published and made accessible to employees, applicants for employment, contractors, potential contractors, and members of the public through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site; and, (12) Be reviewed at the direction of the officer immediately responsible for directing the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or other office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, at least annually to assess their effectiveness and to incorporate appropriate changes., (c) Outreach for contracting. Each regulated entity shall establish a program for outreach designed to ensure to the maximum extent possible the inclusion in contracting opportunities of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. The program at a minimum shall:, (1) Apply to all contracts entered into by the regulated entity, including contracts with financial institutions, investment banking firms, investment consultants or advisors, financial services entities, mortgage banking firms, asset management entities, underwriters, accountants, brokers, brokers-dealers, and providers of legal services;, (2) Establish policies, procedures and standards requiring the publication of contracting opportunities designed to encourage contractors that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses to submit offers or bid for the award of such contracts; and, (3) Ensure the consideration of the diversity of a contractor when the regulated entity reviews and evaluates offers from contractors., (d) D&I strategic planning. By no later than January 25, 2018 the board of directors of each regulated entity shall adopt a D&I strategic plan for promoting D&I of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs. The board of directors of each regulated entity shall review the D&I strategic plan at least annually and shall readopt the plan, including any interim amendments, at least every three years., (e) Contents of the D&I strategic plan. The D&I strategic plan shall include the following:, (1) A vision and/or mission statement that addresses the importance of promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in order to fulfill § 1223.2;, (2) Measurable strategic goals and objectives for accomplishing the agreed-upon priorities and intended outcomes developed to advance diversity and ensure the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities at the regulated entity in accordance with § 1223.2; and, (3) A requirement to create and implement action plans to achieve the strategic goals and objectives and management reporting requirements for monitoring the implementation of those goals and objectives.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) After receipt of the approvals under §§ 708a.108 and 708a.109 the credit union may complete the conversion., (b) The credit union must complete the conversion within one year of the date of receipt of NCUA approval under § 708a.108. If a credit union fails to complete the conversion within one year the Regional Director will disapprove of the methods and procedures. The credit union's board of directors must then adopt a new conversion proposal and solicit another member vote if it still desires to convert., (c) The Regional Director may, upon timely request and for good cause, extend the one year completion period for an additional six months., (d) After notification by the board of directors of the mutual savings bank or mutual savings association that the conversion has been completed, the NCUA will cancel the insurance certificate of the credit union and, if applicable, the charter of a federal credit union.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "For purposes of this subpart - , (a) Bank means an insured State nonmember bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813., (b) Controlled entity means a corporation, partnership, association, or other business entity with respect to which a bank possesses, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of management and policies, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise., (c) FDIC-supervised institution means either a bank or a State savings association., (d) State savings association has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Disclaimer. Place the following statement in boldface type in the material to be sent to equity holders, either on the notice of meeting or the first page of the plan of termination:, The Farm Credit Administration has not determined if this information is accurate or complete. You should not rely on any statement to the contrary., (b) Summary. The first part of the plan of termination must be a summary that concisely explains:, (1) Which stockholders have a right to vote on the termination and related transactions;, (2) The material changes the termination will cause to the rights of borrowers and other equity holders;, (3) The effect of those changes;, (4) The anticipated benefits and potential disadvantages of the termination;, (5) The right of certain equity holders to dissent and receive payment for their existing equities; and, (6) The estimated termination date., (7) If applicable, an explanation of any corporate restructuring that the successor institution expects to engage in within 18 months after the date of termination., (c) Remaining requirements. You must also disclose the following information to equity holders:, (1) Termination resolution. Provide a certified copy of the termination resolution required under § 611.1220., (2) Plan of termination. Summarize the plan of termination., (3) Benefits and disadvantages. Provide an enumerated statement of the anticipated benefits and potential disadvantages of the termination., (4) Recommendation. Explain the board's basis for recommending the termination., (5) Exit fee. Explain the preliminary exit fee estimate, with any adjustments we require, and estimated expenses of termination and organization of the successor institution., (6) Initial board of directors. List the initial board of directors and senior officers for the successor institution, with a brief description of the business experience of each person, including principal occupation and employment during the past 5 years., (7) Relevant contracts and agreements. Include copies of all contracts and agreements related to the termination, including any proposed contracts in connection with the termination and subsequent operations of the successor institution. The FCA may, in its discretion, permit or require you to provide a summary or summaries of the documents in the disclosure information to be submitted to equity holders instead of copies of the documents., (8) Bylaws and charter. Summarize the provisions of the bylaws and charter of the successor institution that differ materially from your bylaws and charter. The summary must state:, (i) Whether the successor institution will require a borrower to hold an equity interest as a condition for having a loan; and, (ii) Whether the successor institution will require equity holders to do business with the institution., (9) Changes to equity. Explain any changes in the nature of equity investments in the successor institution, such as changes in dividends, patronage, voting rights, preferences, retirement of equities, and liquidation priority. If equities protected under section 4.9A of the Act are outstanding, the plan of termination must state that the Act's protections will be extinguished on termination., (10) Effect of termination on statutory and regulatory rights. Explain the effect of termination on rights granted to equity holders by the Act and FCA regulations. You must explain the effect termination will have on borrower rights granted in the Act and part 617 of this chapter., (11) Loan refinancing by borrowers. (i) State, as applicable, that borrowers may seek to refinance their loans with the System institutions that already serve, or will be permitted to serve, your territory. State that no System institution is obligated to refinance your loans., (ii) If we have assigned the chartered territory you serve to another System institution before the plan of termination is mailed to equity holders, or if another System institution is already chartered to make the same type of loans you make in the chartered territory, identify such institution(s) and provide the following information:, (A) The name, address, and telephone number of the institution; and, (B) An explanation of the institution's procedures for borrowers to apply for refinancing., (iii) If we have not assigned the territory before you mail the plan of termination, give the name, address, and telephone number of the System institution specified by us and state that borrowers may contact the institution for information about loan refinancing., (12) Equity exchanges. Explain the formula and procedure to exchange equity in your institution for equity in the successor institution., (13) Employment, retirement, and severance agreements. Describe any employment agreement or arrangement between the successor institution and any of your senior officers or directors. Describe any severance and retirement plans that cover your employees or directors and state the costs you expect to incur under the plans in connection with the termination., (14) Final exit fee and its calculation. Explain how the final exit fee will be calculated under § 611.1255 and how it will be paid., (15) New charter. Describe the nature and type of financial institution the successor institution will be and any conditions of approval of the new chartering authority or regulator., (16) Differences in successor institution's programs and policies. Summarize any differences between you and the successor institution on:, (i) Interest rates and fees;, (ii) Collection policies;, (iii) Services provided; and, (iv) Any other item that would affect a borrower's lending relationship with the successor institution, including whether a stockholder's ability to borrow from the institution will be restricted., (17) Capitalization. Discuss expected capital requirements of the successor institution, and the amount and method of capitalization., (18) Sources of funding. Explain the sources and manner of funding for the successor institution's operations., (19) Contingent liabilities. Describe how the successor institution will address any contingent liability it will assume from you., (20) Tax status. Summarize the differences in tax status between your institution and the successor institution, and explain how the differences may affect equity holders., (21) Regulatory environment. Describe briefly how the regulatory environment for the successor institution will differ from your current regulatory environment, and any effect on the cost of doing business or the value of stockholders' equity., (22) Dissenters' rights. Explain which equity holders are entitled to dissenters' rights and what those rights are. The explanation must include the estimated liquidation value of the stock, procedures for exercising dissenters' rights, and a statement of when the rights may be exercised., (23) Financial information. (i) Present the following financial data:, (A) A balance sheet and income statement for each of the 3 preceding fiscal years;, (B) A balance sheet as of a date within 90 days of the date you send the plan of termination to us, presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the previous 2 fiscal years;, (C) An income statement for the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the balance sheet required by paragraph (d)(23)(i)(B) of this section, presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the previous 2 fiscal years;, (D) A pro forma balance sheet of the successor institution presented as if termination had occurred as of the date of the most recent balance sheet presented in the plan of termination; and, (E) A pro forma summary of earnings for the successor institution presented as if the termination had been effective at the beginning of the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the balance sheet presented under paragraph (d)(23)(i)(D) of this section., (ii) The format for the balance sheet and income statement must be the same as the format in your annual report and must contain appropriate footnote disclosures, including data on high-risk assets, other property owned, and allowance for losses., (iii) The financial statements must include either:, (A) A statement signed by the chief executive officer and each board member that the various financial statements are unaudited but have been prepared in all material respects in conformity with GAAP (except as otherwise disclosed) and are, to the best of each signer's knowledge, a fair and accurate presentation of the financial condition of the institution; or, (B) A signed opinion by an independent certified public accountant that the various financial statements have been examined in conformity with generally accepted auditing standards and included such tests of the accounting records and other such auditing procedures as were considered necessary in the circumstances, and, as of the date of the statements, present fairly the financial position of the institution in conformity with GAAP applied on a consistent basis, except as otherwise disclosed., (24) Subsequent financial events. Describe any event after the date of the financial statements, but before the date you send the plan of termination to us, that would have a material impact on your financial condition or the condition of the successor institution., (25) Other subsequent events. Describe any event after you send the plan of termination to us that could have a material impact on any information in the plan of termination., (26) Other material disclosures. Describe any other material fact or circumstance that a stockholder would need to know to make an informed decision on the termination, or that is necessary to make the disclosures not misleading. We may require you to disclose any assessments, analyses, studies, or rulings we require under § 611.1211., (27) Ballot and proxy. Include a ballot and proxy, with instructions on the purpose and authority for their use, and the proper method for the stockholder to sign the proxy., (28) Board of directors certification. Include a certification signed by the entire board of directors as to the truth, accuracy, and completeness of the information contained in the plan of termination. If any director refuses to sign the certification, the director must inform us of the reasons for refusing., (29) Directors' statements. You must include statements, if any, by directors regarding the proposed termination., (d) Requirement to provide updated information. After you send us the plan of termination, you must immediately send us:, (1) Any material change to information in the plan of termination, including financial information, that occurs between the date you file the plan of termination and the termination date;, (2) Copies of any additional written information on the termination that you have given or give to current or prospective equity holders before termination; and, (3) A description of any subsequent event(s) that could have a material impact on any information in the plan of termination or on the termination.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) A Participant's Security Entitlement is created when a Federal Reserve Bank indicates by book entry that a Book-entry consolidated obligation has been credited to a Participant's Securities Account., (b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement of a Participant in favor of the United States to secure deposits of public money, including, without limitation, deposits to the Treasury tax and loan accounts, or other security interest in favor of the United States that is required by Federal statute, regulation, or agreement, and that is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank is thereby effected and perfected, and has priority over any other interest in the Securities. Where a security interest in favor of the United States in a Security Entitlement of a Participant is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank, such Federal Reserve Bank may rely, and is protected in relying, exclusively on the order of an authorized representative of the United States directing the transfer of the Security. For purposes of this paragraph (b), an “authorized representative of the United States” is the official designated in the applicable regulations or agreement to which a Federal Reserve Bank is a party, governing the security interest., (c)(1) The Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States and the Federal Reserve Banks have no obligation to agree to act on behalf of any Person or to recognize the interest of any transferee of a security interest or other limited interest in a Security Entitlement in favor of any Person except to the extent of any specific requirement of Federal law or regulation or to the extent set forth in any specific agreement with the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the interest of the Participant is recorded. To the extent required by such law or regulation or set forth in an agreement with a Federal Reserve Bank, or the Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular, a security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank or a Person may be created and perfected by a Federal Reserve Bank marking its books to record the security interest. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank shall have priority over any other interest in the Securities., (2) In addition to the method provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement, including a security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, may be perfected by any method by which a security interest may be perfected under applicable law as described in § 1270.12(b) or § 1270.13. The perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection, and priority of a security interest are governed by that applicable law. A security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank shall be treated as a security interest in favor of a clearing corporation in all respects under that law, including with respect to the effect of perfection and priority of the security interest. A Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular shall be treated as a rule adopted by a clearing corporation for such purposes.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "NCUA may at any time, based upon supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons, limit any CUSO activities or services, or refuse to permit any CUSO activities or services. Otherwise, an FCU may invest in, loan to, and/or contract with only those CUSOs that are sufficiently bonded or insured for their specific operations and engaged in the preapproved activities and services related to the routine daily operations of credit unions. The specific activities listed within each preapproved category are provided in this section as illustrations of activities permissible under the particular category, not as an exclusive or exhaustive list. , (a) Checking and currency services:, (1) Check cashing;, (2) Coin and currency services; , (3) Money order, savings bonds, travelers checks, and purchase and sale of U.S. Mint commemorative coins services; and, (4) Stored value products; , (b) Clerical, professional and management services:, (1) Accounting services;, (2) Courier services;, (3) Credit analysis;, (4) Facsimile transmissions and copying services;, (5) Internal audits for credit unions;, (6) Locator services;, (7) Management and personnel training and support;, (8) Marketing services;, (9) Research services; , (10) Supervisory committee audits; and, (11) Employee leasing services;, (c) Electronic transaction services:, (1) Automated teller machine (ATM) services;, (2) Credit card and debit card services;, (3) Data processing;, (4) Electronic fund transfer (EFT) services;, (5) Electronic income tax filing;, (6) Payment item processing;, (7) Wire transfer services; and, (8) Cyber financial services;, (d) Financial counseling services:, (1) Developing and administering Individual Retirement Accounts (IRA), Keogh, deferred compensation, and other personnel benefit plans;, (2) Estate planning;, (3) Financial planning and counseling;, (4) Income tax preparation;, (5) Investment counseling; , (6) Retirement counseling; and, (7) Business counseling and consultant services; , (e) Fixed asset services:, (1) Management, development, sale, or lease of fixed assets; and, (2) Sale, lease, or servicing of computer hardware or software;, (f) Insurance brokerage or agency:, (1) Agency for sale of insurance;, (2) Provision of vehicle warranty programs; , (3) Provision of group purchasing programs; and, (4) Real estate settlement services; , (g) Leasing:, (1) Personal property; and, (2) Real estate leasing of excess CUSO property;, (h) Loan support services:, (1) Debt collection services;, (2) Loan processing, servicing, and sales; , (3) Sale of repossessed collateral;, (4) Real estate settlement services;, (5) Purchase and servicing of non-performing loans; and, (6) Referral and processing of loan applications for members whose loan applications have been denied by the credit union; , (i) Record retention, security and disaster recovery services:, (1) Alarm-monitoring and other security services;, (2) Disaster recovery services;, (3) Microfilm, microfiche, optical and electronic imaging, CD-ROM data storage and retrieval services;, (4) Provision of forms and supplies; and, (5) Record retention and storage;, (j) Securities brokerage services;, (k) Shared credit union branch (service center) operations;, (l) Travel agency services;, (m) Trust and trust-related services:, (1) Acting as administrator for prepaid legal service plans;, (2) Acting as trustee, guardian, conservator, estate administrator, or in any other fiduciary capacity; and, (3) Trust services;, (n) Real estate brokerage services;, (o) In connection with providing a permissible service, a CUSO may invest in a non-CUSO service provider. The amount of the CUSO's investment is limited to the amount necessary to participate in the service provider, or a greater amount if necessary to receive a reduced price for goods or services;, (p) Payroll processing services;, (q) Loan origination, including originating, purchasing, selling, and holding any type of loan permissible for Federal credit unions to originate, purchase, sell, and hold, including the authority to purchase and sell participation interests that are permissible for Federal credit unions to purchase and sell; and, (r) Other categories of activities as approved in writing by the NCUA and published on the NCUA's website. Once the NCUA has approved an activity and published that activity on its website, the NCUA will not remove that particular activity from the approved list or make substantial changes to the content or description of that approved activity, except through formal rulemaking procedures.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "An institution-affiliated party who is suspended or removed from office or prohibited from participation in the institution's affairs may request an informal hearing within 30 days of service of the notice or order. The request shall be filed in writing with the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request shall state with particularity the relief desired and the grounds therefor and shall include, when available, supporting evidence in the form of affidavits. If the institution-affiliated party desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the institution-affiliated party must include a request to do so with the request for informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Return of items - (1) Return of cash items handled by Reserve Banks. A paying bank that receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank, other than for immediate payment over the counter, and that settles for the item as provided in § 210.9(b), may, before it has finally paid the item, return the item to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to return the item to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. A paying bank that receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank also may return the item prior to settlement, in accordance with § 210.9(b) and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. The rules or practices of a clearinghouse through which the item was presented, or a special collection agreement under which the item was presented, may not extend these return times, but may provide for a shorter return time., (2) Return of checks not handled by Reserve Banks. A paying bank that receives a check, other than from a Reserve Bank, and that determines not to pay the check, may send the returned check to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to send the returned check to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. A returning bank may send a returned check to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to send the returned check to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars., (b) Handling of returned checks. (1) The following parties, in the following order, are deemed to have handled a returned check sent to a Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section - , (i) The paying or returning bank;, (ii) The paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank;, (iii) The Reserve Bank that receives the returned check from the paying or returning bank (if different from the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank); and, (iv) Another Reserve Bank, if any, that receives the returned check from a Reserve Bank., (2) A Reserve Bank that is not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not a person that handles a returned check and is not a returning bank with respect to a returned check., (3) The identity and order of the parties under paragraph (b)(1) of this section determine the relationships and the rights and liabilities of the parties under this subpart, part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), and the Uniform Commercial Code., (c) Paying bank's and returning bank's agreement. The warranties, indemnities, authorizations, and agreements made pursuant to this paragraph (c) may not be disclaimed and are made whether or not the returned check bears an indorsement of the paying bank or returning bank. By sending a returned check to a Reserve Bank, the paying bank or returning bank does all of the following., (1) Authorization to handle returned check. The paying bank or returning bank authorizes the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank, and any other Reserve Bank or returning bank to which the returned check is sent, to handle the returned check (and authorizes any Reserve Bank that handles settlement for the returned check to make accounting entries) subject to this subpart and to the Reserve Banks' operating circulars., (2) Warranties for all returned checks. The paying bank or returning bank warrants to each Reserve Bank handling a returned check that the returned check bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the returned check for forward collection or return., (3) Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC. As applicable and unless otherwise provided, a paying bank or returning bank makes to each Reserve Bank that handles the returned check all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC)., (4) Paying bank or returning bank's liability to Reserve Bank. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section, a paying bank or returning bank agrees to indemnify each Reserve Bank for any loss or expense (including attorneys' fees and expenses of litigation) resulting from - , (A) The paying or returning bank's lack of authority to give the authorization in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;, (B) Any action taken by a Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the returned check; or, (C) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under paragraph (e) of this section or part 229 of this chapter., (ii) A paying bank's or returning bank's liability for warranties and indemnities that a Reserve Bank makes for a returned check that is a substitute check, a paper or electronic representation thereof, or an electronic returned check is subject to the following conditions and limitations - , (A) A paying bank or returning bank that sent an original returned check shall not be liable for any amount that a Reserve Bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter, or under § 229.34 of this chapter with respect to an electronic returned check, absent the paying bank's or returning bank's agreement to the contrary; and, (B) Nothing in this subpart alters the liability under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter of a paying bank or returning bank that sent a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check or under § 229.34 of this chapter of a paying bank or returning bank that sent an electronic returned check; and, (iii) A paying bank or returning bank shall not be liable for any amount that the Reserve Bank pays under this subpart or part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care., (d) Paying bank or returning bank's liability under other law. Nothing in paragraph (c) of this section limits any warranty or indemnity by a returning bank or paying bank (or a person that handled an item prior to that bank) arising under state law or regulation (such as the U.C.C.), other federal law or regulation (such as part 229 of this chapter), or an agreement with a Reserve Bank., (e) Warranties by and liability of Reserve Bank - (1) Warranties and indemnities. The following provisions apply when a Reserve Bank handles a returned check under this subpart., (i) Warranties for all items. The Reserve Bank warrants to the bank to which it sends the returned check that the returned check bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the returned check for forward collection or return., (ii) Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC. As applicable and unless otherwise provided, the Reserve Bank makes all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC)., (2) Indemnity for substitute check created from electronic returned check. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the Reserve Bank shall indemnify the bank to which it transfers or presents an electronic returned check (the recipient bank) for the amount of any losses that the recipient bank incurs under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC) for an indemnity that the recipient bank was required to make under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter in connection with a substitute check later created from the electronic returned check., (ii) The Reserve Bank shall not be liable under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section for any amount that the recipient bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care of the recipient bank or a person that handled the item, in any form, after the recipient bank., (3) Liability of Reserve Bank. A Reserve Bank shall not have or assume any other liability to any person except - , (i) For the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care;, (ii) As provided in this paragraph (e); and, (iii) As provided in subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC)., (f) Recovery by Reserve Bank. (1) A Reserve Bank that has handled a returned check may recover as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section if an action or proceeding is brought against (or if defense is tendered to) the Reserve Bank based on - , (i) The alleged failure of the paying bank or returning bank to have the authority to give the authorization in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;, (ii) Any action by the Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the returned check; or, (iii) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under paragraph (e) of this section or part 229 of this chapter; and, (2) Upon entry of a final judgment or decree in an action or proceeding described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, a Reserve Bank may recover from the paying bank or returning bank the amount of attorneys' fees and other expenses of litigation incurred, as well as any amount the Reserve Bank is required to pay because of the judgment or decree or the tender of defense, together with interest thereon., (g) Methods of recovery. (1) The Reserve Bank may recover the amount stated in paragraph (f) of this section by charging any account on its books that is maintained or used by the paying bank or returning bank (or by charging another returning Reserve Bank), if - , (i) The Reserve Bank made seasonable written demand on the paying bank or returning bank to assume defense of the action or proceeding; and, (ii) The paying bank or returning bank has not made any other arrangement for payment that is acceptable to the Reserve Bank., (2) The Reserve Bank is not responsible for defending the action or proceeding before using this method of recovery. A Reserve Bank that has been charged under this paragraph (g) may recover from the paying or returning bank in the manner and under the circumstances set forth in this paragraph (g)., (3) A Reserve Bank's failure to avail itself of the remedy provided in this paragraph (g) does not prejudice its enforcement in any other manner of the indemnity agreement referred to in paragraph (c)(4) of this section., (h) Reserve Bank's responsibility. A Reserve Bank shall handle a returned check, or a notice of nonpayment, in accordance with subpart C of part 229 and its operating circular. , (i) Settlement. A subsequent returning bank or depositary bank shall settle with its Administrative Reserve Bank for returned checks in the same manner and by the same time as for cash items presented for payment under this subpart. Settlement with its Administrative Reserve Bank is deemed to be settlement with the Reserve Bank from which the returning bank or depositary bank received the item., (j) Security interest. When a paying or returning bank sends a returned check to a Reserve Bank, the paying bank, returning bank, and any prior returning bank grant to the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank a security interest in all of their respective assets in the possession of, or held for the account of, any Reserve Bank, to secure their respective obligations due or to become due to the Administrative Reserve Bank under this subpart or subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC). The security interest attaches when a warranty is breached or any other obligation to the Reserve Bank is incurred. If the Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice thereof to the paying bank, returning bank, or prior returning bank, or if the paying bank, returning bank, or prior returning bank suspends payments or is closed, the Reserve Bank may take any action authorized by law to recover the amount of an obligation, including, but not limited to, the exercise of rights of set off, the realization on any available collateral, and any other rights it may have as a creditor under applicable law. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions - (1) General. An application filed under this subpart by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and which meets the additional criteria in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will be acknowledged by the FDIC in writing and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2)., (2) Timing. Under expedited processing, the FDIC will take action on an application by the date that is the latest of:, (i) 45 days after the date of the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete merger application; or, (ii) 10 days after the date of the last notice publication required under § 303.65 of this subpart; or, (iii) 5 days after receipt of the Attorney General's report on the competitive factors involved in the proposed transaction; or, (iv) For an interstate merger transaction subject to the provisions of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u), 5 days after the FDIC receives confirmation from the host state (as defined in § 303.41(e)) that the applicant has both complied with the filing requirements of the host state and submitted a copy of the FDIC merger application to the host state's bank supervisor., (3) No automatic approval. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, if the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval., (4) Criteria. The FDIC will process an application using expedited procedures if:, (i) Immediately following the merger transaction, the resulting institution will be “well-capitalized” pursuant to subpart H of part 324 of this chapter (12 CFR part 324), as applicable; and, (ii)(A) All parties to the merger transaction are eligible depository institutions as defined in § 303.2(r); or, (B) The acquiring party is an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and the amount of the total assets to be transferred does not exceed an amount equal to 10 percent of the acquiring institution's total assets as reported in its report of condition for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the merger application., (b) Standard processing. For those applications not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action taken by the FDIC on the application when the decision is rendered., (c) Processing for State savings associations. Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC will approve or disapprove an application filed by a State savings association to acquire or be acquired by another insured depository institution that is required to be filed with the FDIC within 60 days after the date of the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete merger application, subject to the FDIC's discretion to extend such period by an additional 30 days if any material information submitted is substantially inaccurate or incomplete., (1) The FDIC shall notify an applicant that is a State savings association in writing of the date the application is deemed substantially complete. The FDIC may request additional information at any time., (2) Notwithstanding this paragraph (c), if the FDIC does not approve or disapprove an application within the 60-day or extended processing period it does not constitute an automatic or default approval. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) The hearing may be held: , (1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business; , (2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement at issue was made; or , (3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ. , (b) Each party will have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing. , (c) The hearing will be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a) General. Except as provided in § 217.400(b)(3)(ii), a global systemically important BHC's short-term wholesale funding score is equal to:, (1) The average of the global systemically important BHC's weighted short-term wholesale funding amount (defined in paragraph (b) of this section);, (2) Divided by the global systemically important BHC's average risk-weighted assets; and, (3) Multiplied by a fixed factor of 350., (b) Weighted short-term wholesale funding amount. (1) To calculate its weighted short-term wholesale funding amount, a global systemically important BHC must calculate the amount of its short-term wholesale funding on a consolidated basis for each business day of the previous calendar year and weight the components of short-term wholesale funding in accordance with Table 1 of this section., (2) Short-term wholesale funding includes the following components, each as defined in paragraph (c) of this section:, (i) All funds that the bank holding company must pay under each secured funding transaction, other than an operational deposit, with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;, (ii) All funds that the bank holding company must pay under all unsecured wholesale funding, other than an operational deposit, with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;, (iii) The fair value of an asset as determined under GAAP that a bank holding company must return under a covered asset exchange with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;, (iv) The fair value of an asset as determined under GAAP that the bank holding company must return under a short position to the extent that the borrowed asset does not qualify as a Level 1 liquid asset or a Level 2A liquid asset; and, (v) All brokered deposits held at the bank holding company provided by a retail customer or counterparty., (3) For purposes of calculating the short-term wholesale funding amount and the components thereof, a bank holding company must assume that each asset or transaction described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section matures in accordance with the criteria set forth in 12 CFR 249.31.,

Table 1 to § 217.406 - Short-Term Wholesale Funding Components and Weights", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "Section 32 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 78) prohibits any officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, any partner or employee of any partnership, and any individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank of the Federal Reserve System. The Board is of the opinion that to the extent that a company, other entity or person is engaged in securities activities that are expressly authorized for a state member bank under section 16 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 24(7), 335), the company, other entity or individual is not engaged in the types of activities described in section 32. In addition, a securities broker who is engaged solely in executing orders for the purchase and sale of securities on behalf of others in the open market is not engaged in the business referred to in section 32.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) FHFA Employees. Current FHFA employees may disclose or permit the disclosure of non-public information to another FHFA employee or regulated entity or the Office of Finance, when necessary and appropriate, for the performance of their official duties., (b) Regulated Entity Agents and Consultants. (1) When necessary and appropriate for regulated entity or Office of Finance business purposes, a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or any director, officer, or employee thereof may disclose confidential supervisory information to any person currently engaged by the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as officer, director, employee, attorney, auditor, or independent auditor (“regulated entity agents”)., (2) A regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or a director, officer, employee, or agent thereof, also may disclose confidential supervisory information to a consultant under this paragraph if the consultant is under a written contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and the consultant has agreed in writing:, (i) To abide by the prohibition on the disclosure of confidential supervisory information contained in this section; and, (ii) That it will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purposes other than those stated in its contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance., (c) Law Enforcement Proceedings. Notwithstanding the general prohibition of disclosure of non-public information, to the minimum extent required by the Inspector General Act, Public Law 95-452, 92 Stat. 1101 (1978), FHFA's Office of Inspector General is permitted under this section to disclose non-public FHFA information without Director approval., (d) Privilege. FHFA retains all privilege claims for non-public information shared under § 1214.4, including, but not limited to attorney-client, attorney-work product, deliberative process, and examination privileges.", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) In general. You must not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation to the consumer about your products or services, unless the consumer is provided a reasonable opportunity to opt out, as required by § 222.21(a)(1)(ii) of this part., (b) Examples of a reasonable opportunity to opt out. The consumer is given a reasonable opportunity to opt out if:, (1) By mail. The opt-out notice is mailed to the consumer. The consumer is given 30 days from the date the notice is mailed to elect to opt out by any reasonable means., (2) By electronic means. (i) The opt-out notice is provided electronically to the consumer, such as by posting the notice at an Internet Web site at which the consumer has obtained a product or service. The consumer acknowledges receipt of the electronic notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the date the consumer acknowledges receipt to elect to opt out by any reasonable means., (ii) The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer by e-mail where the consumer has agreed to receive disclosures by e-mail from the person sending the notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the e-mail is sent to elect to opt out by any reasonable means., (3) At the time of an electronic transaction. The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer at the time of an electronic transaction, such as a transaction conducted on an Internet Web site. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction. There is a simple process that the consumer may use to opt out at that time using the same mechanism through which the transaction is conducted., (4) At the time of an in-person transaction. The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer in writing at the time of an in-person transaction. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction, and is not permitted to complete the transaction without making a choice. There is a simple process that the consumer may use during the course of the in-person transaction to opt out, such as completing a form that requires consumers to write a “yes” or “no” to indicate their opt-out preference or that requires the consumer to check one of two blank check boxes - one that allows consumers to indicate that they want to opt out and one that allows consumers to indicate that they do not want to opt out., (5) By including in a privacy notice. The opt-out notice is included in a Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act privacy notice. The consumer is allowed to exercise the opt-out within a reasonable period of time and in the same manner as the opt-out under that privacy notice.", "label": "ConsumerProtection"} {"text": "(a) Adequately capitalized correspondents.1 For the purpose of this part, a correspondent is considered adequately capitalized if the correspondent has:, 1 As used in this part, the term “adequately capitalized” is similar but not identical to the definition of that term as used for the purposes of the prompt corrective action standards. See, e.g. 12 CFR part 208, subpart D., (1) A total risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, of 8.0 percent or greater;, (2) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater; and, (3) A leverage ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater., (4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a)., (b) Frequency of monitoring capital levels. A bank shall obtain information to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized on a quarterly basis, either from the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, financial statement, or bank rating report for the correspondent. For a foreign bank correspondent for which quarterly financial statements or reports are not available, a bank shall obtain such information on as frequent a basis as such information is available. Information obtained directly from a correspondent for the purpose of this section should be based on the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, or financial statement of the correspondent., (c) Foreign banks. A correspondent that is a foreign bank may be considered adequately capitalized under this section without regard to the minimum leverage ratio required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section., (d) Reliance on information. A bank may rely on information as to the capital levels of a correspondent obtained from the correspondent, a bank rating agency, or other party that it reasonably believes to be accurate., (e) Definitions. For the purposes of this section:, (1) Total risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of qualifying total capital to weighted risk assets., (2) Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to weighted risk assets., (3) Leverage ratio means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent's primary federal supervisor., (f) Calculation of capital ratios. (1) For a correspondent that is a U.S. depository institution, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent's primary federal supervisor., (2) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the appropriate supervisory authority of the country in which the correspondent is chartered., (3) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has not adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Basel Capital Accord.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) Purpose. This section is issued to assure that all state member banks establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor their compliance with the provisions of the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5311, et seq.) and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR part 103, requiring recordkeeping and reporting of currency transactions., (b) Establishment of BSA compliance program - (1) Program requirement. Each bank shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Bank Secrecy Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR part 103. The compliance program shall be reduced to writing, approved by the board of directors, and noted in the minutes., (2) Customer identification program. Each bank is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the Board and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 103.121, which require a customer identification program to be implemented as part of the BSA compliance program required under this section., (c) Contents of compliance program. The compliance program shall, at a minimum:, (1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;, (2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by bank personnel or by an outside party;, (3) Designate an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and, (4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "For purposes of this part, the term:, Minimum capital level means the lowest amount of capital meeting any regulation or orders issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1426 and 12 U.S.C. 4612, or any similar requirement established by regulation, order or other action., Rescission means a removal in whole or in part of an increase in the temporary minimum capital level.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "(a) In general. (1) A foreign savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must:, (i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and, (ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests., (2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign savings and loan holding company's home-country supervisor must include:, (i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the relevant home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign savings and loan holding company, conducted on at least a biennial basis; and, (ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof)., (b) Additional standards. (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign savings and loan holding company that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must:, (i) Conduct an annual stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions; and, (ii) Report on at least a biennial basis a summary of the results of the stress test to the Board that includes a description of the types of risks included in the stress test, a description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test, a summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, total loan loss provisions, net income before taxes and pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign savings and loan holding company and any other relevant capital ratios, and an explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios., (2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.", "label": "CapitalRequirements"} {"text": "Each institution shall: , (a) Maintain at all times an allowance for loan losses that is determined according to generally accepted accounting principles. , (b) Develop, adopt, and consistently apply policies and procedures governing the establishment and maintenance of the allowance for loan losses which, at a minimum, conform to the rules, definitions, and standards set forth in this part and any other applicable requirements. , (c) Charge-off loans, wholly or partially, as appropriate, at the time they are determined to be uncollectible. , (d) Ensure that when an institution or the Farm Credit Administration determines that the value of a loan or other asset recorded on its books and records exceeds the amount that can reasonably be expected to be collectible, or when the documentation supporting the recorded asset value is inadequate, the institution shall immediately charge off the asset in the amount determined to be uncollectible. If the amount determined to be uncollectible by the institution is different from the amount determined to be uncollectible by the Farm Credit Administration, the institution shall charge off such amount as the Farm Credit Administration shall direct. ", "label": "RiskManagement"} {"text": "(a) Effective date. A cease-and-desist order issued by the Board of Directors after a hearing, and a cease-and-desist order issued based upon a default, shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the service of the order upon the bank or its official. A cease-and-desist order issued upon consent shall become effective at the time specified therein. All cease-and-desist orders shall remain effective and enforceable, except to the extent they are stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the Board of Directors or its designee or by a reviewing court. , (b) Service on banks. In cases where the bank is not the respondent, the cease-and-desist order shall also be served upon the bank. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "The following transactions require the Board's prior approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act except as exempted under § 225.12 or as otherwise covered by § 225.17 of this subpart:, (a) Formation of bank holding company. Any action that causes a bank or other company to become a bank holding company., (b) Acquisition of subsidiary bank. Any action that causes a bank to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company., (c) Acquisition of control of bank or bank holding company securities. (1) The acquisition by a bank holding company of direct or indirect ownership or control of any voting securities of a bank or bank holding company, if the acquisition results in the company's control of more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the bank or bank holding company., (2) An acquisition includes the purchase of additional securities through the exercise of preemptive rights, but does not include securities received in a stock dividend or stock split that does not alter the bank holding company's proportional share of any class of voting securities., (d) Acquisition of bank assets. The acquisition by a bank holding company or by a subsidiary thereof (other than a bank) of all or substantially all of the assets of a bank., (e) Merger of bank holding companies. The merger or consolidation of bank holding companies, including a merger through the purchase of assets and assumption of liabilities., (f) Transactions by foreign banking organization. Any transaction described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section by a foreign banking organization that involves the acquisition of an interest in a U.S. bank or in a bank holding company for which application would be required if the foreign banking organization were a bank holding company.", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) You and any person who performs services for us must not provide preferential treatment to any person in your dealings with the public on our behalf. , (b) You must ensure that any person you employ to perform services for us is informed about their responsibilities under this part. , (c) You must disclose to us waste, fraud, abuse or corruption. Contact the Inspector General at 1-800-964-FDIC or Ighotline@fdic.gov., (d) You and any person who performs contract services to us must not: , (1) Accept or solicit for yourself or others any favor, gift, or other item of monetary value from any person who you reasonably believe is seeking an official action from you on our behalf, or has an interest that the performance or nonperformance of your duties to us may substantially affect;, (2) Use or allow the use of our property, except as specified in the contract; , (3) Make an unauthorized promise or commitment on our behalf; or , (4) Provide impermissible gifts or entertainment to an FDIC employee or other person providing services to us. , (e) The following are examples of when you are engaging in unethical behavior. These examples are not inclusive. , (1) Using government resources, including our Internet connection, to conduct any business that is unrelated to the performance of your contract with us. , (2) Submitting false invoices or claims, or making misleading or false statements. , (3) Committing us to forgive or restructure a debt or portion of a debt, unless we provide you with written authority to do so. ", "label": "CorporateGovernance"} {"text": "(a) Payment. A receiving bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) that receives a payment order from its Federal Reserve Bank authorizes that Federal Reserve Bank to pay for the payment order by crediting the amount of the payment order to the receiving bank's account. , (b) Off-line banks. An off-line bank that does not expressly notify its Federal Reserve Bank in writing that it maintains an account for another bank warrants to that Federal Reserve Bank that the off-line bank does not act as an intermediary bank or a beneficiary's bank with respect to payment orders received through the Fedwire Funds Service for a beneficiary that is a bank. ", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"} {"text": "(a)(1) When the Board appeals and the case involves removal, separation, or suspension continuing beyond the date of the appeal, and when the administrative judge orders retroactive restoration, the Board shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified in the decision, pending the outcome of the Board appeal. The employee may decline the offer of interim relief. , (2) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period, eligibility for a within-grade increase, or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds the decision on appeal. Such service shall not be credited toward the completion of any applicable probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure if the Commission reverses the decision on appeal. , (3) When the Board appeals, it may delay the payment of any amount, other than prospective pay and benefits, ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the appeal is resolved. If the Board delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the appeal and the resolution of the appeal requires the Board to make the payment, then the Board shall pay interest from the date of the original decision until payment is made., (4) The Board shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it appeals that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the Board to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the Board's appeal., (5) The Board may, by notice to the complainant, decline to return the complainant to his or her place of employment if it determines that the return or presence of the complainant will be unduly disruptive to the work environment. However, prospective pay and benefits must be provided. The determination not to return the complainant to his or her place of employment is not reviewable. A grant of interim relief does not insulate a complainant from subsequent disciplinary or adverse action., (b) If the Board files an appeal and has not provided required interim relief, the complainant may request dismissal of the Board's appeal. Any such request must be filed with the Office of Federal Operations within 25 days of the date of service of the Board's appeal. A copy of the request must be served on the Board at the same time it is filed with EEOC. The Board may respond with evidence and argument to the complainant's request to dismiss within 15 days of the date of service of the request.", "label": "ReportingAndCompliance"}